Nursing Elites

1. What should the nurse recommend to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) in a 6-month-old infant?

• A. Place the infant on their back to sleep
• B. Use a pacifier during sleep
• C. Have the infant sleep on their side
• D. Keep the infant's room cool

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing the infant on their back to sleep is the correct recommendation to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). This sleep position has been shown to significantly decrease the incidence of SIDS. Using a pacifier during sleep (Choice B) can also help reduce the risk, but it is secondary to the back sleeping position. Having the infant sleep on their side (Choice C) is not recommended, as it increases the risk of SIDS. Keeping the infant's room cool (Choice D) may provide a comfortable sleeping environment but does not directly reduce the risk of SIDS.

2. The nurse is preparing a presentation to a local community group about genetic disorders and the types of congenital anomalies that can occur. What would the nurse include as a major congenital anomaly?

• A. Overlapping digits
• B. Polydactyly
• C. Umbilical hernia
• D. Cleft palate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cleft palate is considered a major congenital anomaly because it involves a gap or split in the roof of the mouth, which can significantly impact feeding, speech development, dental health, and overall well-being. Overlapping digits (Choice A) and polydactyly (Choice B) are examples of limb abnormalities rather than major congenital anomalies affecting vital functions. Umbilical hernia (Choice C) is a common condition where abdominal organs protrude through the belly button and is typically not considered a major congenital anomaly in the same way as cleft palate.

3. A nurse is caring for an infant with phenylketonuria (PKU). What diet should the nurse anticipate will be ordered by the health care provider?

• A. Fat-free
• B. Protein-enriched
• C. Phenylalanine-free
• D. Low-phenylalanine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A low-phenylalanine diet is required for infants with PKU to prevent the buildup of phenylalanine, which can lead to brain damage.

4. When assessing a child with suspected bacterial meningitis, what clinical manifestation is the nurse likely to observe?

• A. Photophobia
• B. High fever
• C. Rash
• D. Nasal congestion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: High fever. In bacterial meningitis, a high fever is a common clinical manifestation due to the body's inflammatory response to the infection. While photophobia (choice A) is also a common symptom in meningitis, it is not as specific as a high fever. Rash (choice C) is more commonly associated with viral infections or other conditions, rather than bacterial meningitis. Nasal congestion (choice D) is not a typical clinical manifestation of bacterial meningitis and is more commonly seen in respiratory infections. Therefore, when assessing a child with suspected bacterial meningitis, the nurse is most likely to observe a high fever as a key clinical manifestation.

5. Which of the following signs or symptoms is more common in children than adults following head trauma?

• A. nausea and vomiting
• B. altered mental status
• C. tachycardia and diaphoresis
• D. changes in pupillary reaction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are more common in children following head trauma due to their higher risk of increased intracranial pressure. Children have less space for swelling within the skull compared to adults, making them more prone to experiencing symptoms like nausea and vomiting. Altered mental status and changes in pupillary reaction can also occur in both children and adults following head trauma, but they are not specifically more common in children. Tachycardia and diaphoresis are generally signs of autonomic nervous system activation and may occur in both children and adults, but they are not typically more common in children compared to adults following head trauma.

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