Nursing Elites

1. What should the nurse recommend to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) in a 6-month-old infant?

• A. Place the infant on their back to sleep
• B. Use a pacifier during sleep
• C. Have the infant sleep on their side
• D. Keep the infant's room cool

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing the infant on their back to sleep is the correct recommendation to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). This sleep position has been shown to significantly decrease the incidence of SIDS. Using a pacifier during sleep (Choice B) can also help reduce the risk, but it is secondary to the back sleeping position. Having the infant sleep on their side (Choice C) is not recommended, as it increases the risk of SIDS. Keeping the infant's room cool (Choice D) may provide a comfortable sleeping environment but does not directly reduce the risk of SIDS.

2. The healthcare provider closely monitors the temperature of a child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome. The purpose of this assessment is to detect an early sign of which possible complication?

• A. infection
• B. hypertension
• C. encephalopathy
• D. edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring the temperature of a child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome is crucial for detecting early signs of infection, a common complication in this condition. In nephrotic syndrome, the child's immune system is compromised, making them more susceptible to infections. Monitoring for fever or any changes in temperature can help healthcare providers intervene promptly to prevent further complications. Hypertension (choice B) is not typically associated with minimal change nephrotic syndrome. Encephalopathy (choice C) refers to brain dysfunction and is not a common complication of nephrotic syndrome. Edema (choice D) is a primary manifestation of nephrotic syndrome but is not typically monitored through temperature assessment.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing an infant and notes that the infant's urine has a mousy or musty odor. What would the healthcare provider suspect?

• A. Maple syrup urine disease
• B. Tyrosinemia
• C. Phenylketonuria
• D. Trimethylaminuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Phenylketonuria (PKU) is suggested by a mousy or musty odor of the urine, caused by the inability to metabolize phenylalanine. Maple syrup urine disease (Choice A) is characterized by a sweet-smelling urine. Tyrosinemia (Choice B) presents with cabbage-like odor in the urine. Trimethylaminuria (Choice D) results in a fishy odor in the urine, breath, and sweat.

4. During the second week of hospitalization for intravenous antibiotic therapy, a 2-year-old toddler whose family is unable to visit often smiles easily, goes to all the nurses happily, and does not express interest in the parent when the parent does visit. The parent tells the nurse, 'I am pleased about the adjustment but somewhat concerned about my child’s reaction to me.' How should the nurse respond?

• A. The child is repressing feelings for the parent.
• B. Routines have been established, and the child feels safe.
• C. The child has given up fighting and accepts the separation.
• D. Behavior has improved because the child feels better physically.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The child has given up fighting and accepts the separation.' This response indicates that the child is emotionally withdrawing due to the separation from the parent during hospitalization. Choice A is incorrect because the child's behavior does not necessarily suggest repressed feelings for the parent. Choice B is incorrect as feeling safe due to established routines does not fully explain the child's behavior. Choice D is incorrect because while feeling better physically may contribute to improved behavior, it does not address the emotional aspect of the child's reaction to the parent.

5. A child is diagnosed with atopic dermatitis. Which laboratory test would the nurse expect the child to undergo to provide additional evidence for this condition?

• A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
• B. Potassium hydroxide prep
• C. Wound culture
• D. Serum immunoglobulin E (IgE) level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum immunoglobulin E (IgE) level. An elevated serum IgE level is commonly associated with atopic dermatitis, reflecting an allergic response. Choice A, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, is not typically used to diagnose atopic dermatitis. Choice B, potassium hydroxide prep, is used to identify fungal infections like ringworm, not for diagnosing atopic dermatitis. Choice C, wound culture, is performed to identify microorganisms in a wound, not to diagnose atopic dermatitis.

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