HESI LPN
Pediatric Practice Exam HESI
1. When assessing a child with a possible fracture, what would be the most reliable indicator for the nurse to identify?
- A. Lack of spontaneous movement
- B. Point tenderness
- C. Bruising
- D. Inability to bear weight
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Point tenderness is the most reliable indicator of a possible fracture in a child. It refers to localized pain at a specific point, indicating a potential bone injury. Lack of spontaneous movement (Choice A) is non-specific and can be due to various reasons. Bruising (Choice C) may be present in fractures but is not as specific as point tenderness. Inability to bear weight (Choice D) can also be seen in fractures but may not always be present, making it less reliable compared to point tenderness.
2. After clearing the airway of a newborn who is not in distress, what is the most important action to take next?
- A. Administer free-flow oxygen
- B. Clamp and cut the cord
- C. Keep the newborn warm
- D. Obtain an APGAR score
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Keeping the newborn warm is crucial immediately after clearing the airway to prevent hypothermia, which can lead to complications in newborns. Administering free-flow oxygen is not necessary if the newborn is not in distress. Clamping and cutting the cord can be done after ensuring the newborn's warmth. Obtaining an APGAR score is important but can be done after ensuring the newborn is kept warm and stable.
3. What should the nurse recommend to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) in a 6-month-old infant?
- A. Place the infant on their back to sleep
- B. Use a pacifier during sleep
- C. Have the infant sleep on their side
- D. Keep the infant's room cool
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Placing the infant on their back to sleep is the correct recommendation to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). This sleep position has been shown to significantly decrease the incidence of SIDS. Using a pacifier during sleep (Choice B) can also help reduce the risk, but it is secondary to the back sleeping position. Having the infant sleep on their side (Choice C) is not recommended, as it increases the risk of SIDS. Keeping the infant's room cool (Choice D) may provide a comfortable sleeping environment but does not directly reduce the risk of SIDS.
4. An infant with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) is admitted to the pediatric unit. What does the nurse expect when palpating the infant’s abdomen?
- A. A distended colon
- B. Marked tenderness around the umbilicus
- C. An olive-sized mass in the right upper quadrant
- D. Rhythmic peristaltic waves in the lower abdomen
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When palpating the abdomen of an infant with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS), the nurse would expect to feel an olive-sized mass in the right upper quadrant. This finding is characteristic of HPS due to the hypertrophied pylorus muscle. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A distended colon is not typically associated with HPS. Marked tenderness around the umbilicus is not a specific finding of HPS. Rhythmic peristaltic waves in the lower abdomen are not expected in HPS, as the condition primarily affects the pylorus region of the stomach.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the clinical records of infants and children with cardiac disorders who developed heart failure. What did the healthcare professional determine is the last sign of heart failure?
- A. Tachypnea
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Peripheral edema
- D. Periorbital edema
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Peripheral edema is often the last sign of heart failure in infants and children as it indicates significant fluid retention and circulatory compromise. Tachypnea (Choice A) and tachycardia (Choice B) are early signs of heart failure due to the body's compensatory mechanisms. Periorbital edema (Choice D) can occur in heart failure but is not typically the last sign; it is more commonly associated with renal or hepatic dysfunction.
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