Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a child with a possible fracture, what would be the most reliable indicator for the nurse to identify?

• A. Lack of spontaneous movement
• B. Point tenderness
• C. Bruising
• D. Inability to bear weight

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Point tenderness is the most reliable indicator of a possible fracture in a child. It refers to localized pain at a specific point, indicating a potential bone injury. Lack of spontaneous movement (Choice A) is non-specific and can be due to various reasons. Bruising (Choice C) may be present in fractures but is not as specific as point tenderness. Inability to bear weight (Choice D) can also be seen in fractures but may not always be present, making it less reliable compared to point tenderness.

2. At 7 AM, a healthcare professional receives the information that an adolescent with diabetes has a 6:30 AM fasting blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL. What is the priority nursing action at this time?

• A. Encourage the adolescent to start exercising.
• B. Ask the adolescent to obtain an immediate glucometer reading.
• C. Inform the adolescent that a complex carbohydrate such as cheese should be eaten.
• D. Tell the adolescent that the prescribed dose of rapid-acting insulin should be administered.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct priority nursing action in this situation is to administer the prescribed dose of rapid-acting insulin. Rapid-acting insulin is necessary to help lower the elevated blood glucose level quickly, thereby preventing potential complications of hyperglycemia. Encouraging exercise, obtaining a glucometer reading, or suggesting consumption of complex carbohydrates like cheese may not address the immediate need to bring down the high blood glucose level effectively. Exercise could potentially raise blood glucose levels, obtaining a glucometer reading may delay necessary treatment, and consuming complex carbohydrates can further elevate blood glucose levels in this scenario.

3. A child is brought to the clinic after tripping over a rock. The child states, 'I twisted my ankle,' and is given a diagnosis of a sprain. What intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge instructions for this child?

• A. For the first 24 hours, apply ice for 20 minutes and then remove for 60 minutes.
• B. Bed rest with the leg elevated for 36 hours.
• C. May take an NSAID for pain as needed.
• D. Use a compression dressing for 72 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a sprained ankle is to apply ice for 20 minutes every hour for the first 24 hours, then remove for 60 minutes to prevent tissue damage. This regimen helps reduce swelling and pain. Bed rest with the leg elevated for an extended period (36 hours) may lead to stiffness and decreased range of motion. While NSAIDs can be used for pain, they may not be necessary if pain is manageable with ice and rest. Using a compression dressing for 72 hours continuously may impede proper circulation and delay healing by restricting blood flow.

4. The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a child who is to have his cast removed. What instruction would the nurse most likely include?

• A. Applying petroleum jelly to the dry skin.
• B. Rubbing the skin vigorously to remove the dead skin.
• C. Soaking the area in warm water every day.
• D. Washing the skin with diluted peroxide and water.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the teaching plan is to advise the child to soak the area in warm water every day. Soaking the area in warm water helps to gently remove dead skin without causing irritation, facilitating the safe and comfortable removal of the cast. Applying petroleum jelly (Choice A) may not be necessary and could interfere with the cast removal process. Rubbing the skin vigorously (Choice B) can lead to skin damage and should be avoided. Washing the skin with diluted peroxide and water (Choice D) is not recommended as peroxide can be irritating to the skin and may not aid in cast removal.

5. Which cardiac defects are associated with tetralogy of Fallot?

• A. Right ventricular hypertrophy, atrial and ventricular defects, and mitral valve stenosis
• B. Origin of the aorta from the right ventricle and of the pulmonary artery from the left ventricle
• C. Right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis, and overriding aorta
• D. Altered connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an atrial septal defect

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis, and overriding aorta are the cardiac defects associated with Tetralogy of Fallot. In Tetralogy of Fallot, these specific abnormalities contribute to the classic features of the condition. Choice A is incorrect as it includes mitral valve stenosis, which is not typically part of Tetralogy of Fallot. Choice B describes transposition of the great arteries, not Tetralogy of Fallot. Choice D mentions an altered connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta, which is not a defining characteristic of Tetralogy of Fallot.

Similar Questions