Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider plans to assess a newborn and check the infant's Moro reflex. What is the healthcare provider evaluating?

• A. Neurological integrity
• B. Renal functioning
• C. Thermoregulation
• D. Respiratory adequacy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Moro reflex is an instinctive response observed in newborns, indicating their neurological integrity. This reflex is evaluated by eliciting a startle response in the infant, involving the sudden extension and abduction of the limbs, followed by their retraction. This assessment helps in determining the proper functioning of the infant's nervous system and brain. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not relate to the evaluation of the Moro reflex. Renal functioning pertains to kidney function, thermoregulation refers to temperature control, and respiratory adequacy involves assessing breathing and oxygenation levels, none of which are evaluated through the Moro reflex.

2. A grand multiparous client had a precipitous delivery in the emergency room 6 hours ago. The client was given oxytocin intramuscularly after birth. The nurse examines the client and observes the pad under her buttocks is full of blood. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Place a new pad and weigh the pad removed to determine blood loss.
• B. Massage the fundus and express clots.
• C. Start an IV and begin an oxytocin infusion.
• D. Clean the perineal area and encourage her to breastfeed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Massaging the fundus and expressing clots helps contract the uterus and reduce postpartum hemorrhage.

3. When reconstituted, how many milligrams are in each milliliter of solution?

• A. 300 mg/mL
• B. 350 mg/mL
• C. 450 mg/mL
• D. 400 mg/mL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After reconstitution, the concentration of the cefazolin solution is 400 mg/mL. This calculation is derived by dividing the total milligrams in the vial (1000 mg) by the total volume after reconstitution (2.5 mL). Therefore, each milliliter of the solution contains 400 mg of cefazolin. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not match the correct calculation based on the information provided.

4. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Persistent cough
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly associated with a persistent dry cough as a side effect. This cough is thought to result from increased bradykinin levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypokalemia is not a common side effect of lisinopril; in fact, it may lead to hyperkalemia. Hyperglycemia is not a typical side effect of lisinopril use. Tachycardia is also not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors like lisinopril.

5. What is the priority nursing action during the immediate postoperative period for a client who just underwent a coronary artery bypass graft?

• A. Monitor for signs of infection
• B. Ensure the client is pain-free
• C. Assess for bleeding and arrhythmias
• D. Maintain a patent airway

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Maintaining a patent airway is the priority nursing action during the immediate postoperative period for a client who just underwent a coronary artery bypass graft. This is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation, especially in the early recovery phase. Monitoring for signs of infection, ensuring the client is pain-free, and assessing for bleeding and arrhythmias are important aspects of postoperative care but maintaining a clear airway takes precedence in this scenario to prevent hypoxia and respiratory compromise. In the immediate postoperative period, maintaining a patent airway is essential to prevent complications such as airway obstruction, hypoxia, and respiratory distress, which are critical in ensuring the client's safety and recovery.

Similar Questions