Nursing Elites

1. A client admitted to the hospital with advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism is exhibiting ascites and edema. Which pathophysiological mechanisms should the nurse identify as responsible for the third spacing symptoms? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Portal hypertension.
• B. Sodium and water retention.
• C. Decreased serum albumin.
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism, ascites and edema occur due to multiple pathophysiological mechanisms. Portal hypertension contributes to the development of ascites by increasing pressure in the portal venous system. Sodium and water retention exacerbate fluid accumulation in the third space. Decreased serum albumin levels lead to reduced oncotic pressure, contributing to the movement of fluid into the interstitial spaces. Abnormal protein metabolism further disrupts fluid balance. Therefore, all of the options (A, B, and C) are correct in this scenario, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C alone do not fully explain the comprehensive pathophysiological mechanisms involved in the development of ascites and edema in this clinical context.

2. Prior to administering morphine sulfate (Morphine), the nurse takes the client's vital signs. Based on which finding should the nurse withhold administration of the medication until the charge nurse is notified?

• A. Temperature of 100.8°F
• B. A pulse rate of 150 beats per minute
• C. A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
• D. A blood pressure of 180/110

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a low respiratory rate is a critical concern when administering opioids like morphine, as they can suppress breathing. A high pulse rate (choice B) and high blood pressure (choice D) are not immediate contraindications for administering morphine. A slightly elevated temperature (choice A) may not necessarily require withholding morphine.

3. A client reports feeling dizzy and light-headed when standing up. What is the nurse's best initial action?

• A. Instruct the client to sit or lie down
• B. Monitor blood pressure and pulse
• C. Administer an anti-dizziness medication
• D. Increase fluid intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor blood pressure and pulse. When a client reports feeling dizzy and light-headed when standing up, the nurse's best initial action should be to monitor the client's blood pressure and pulse. These symptoms are indicative of orthostatic hypotension, which can be confirmed by changes in blood pressure and pulse when moving from lying to standing positions. Instructing the client to sit or lie down may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying cause. Administering an anti-dizziness medication should not be the initial action without assessing vital signs first. Increasing fluid intake is important for overall health but is not the priority in this situation where vital sign monitoring is needed to assess for orthostatic hypotension.

4. A client is admitted to the hospital with second and third degree burns to the face and neck. How should the nurse best position the client to maximize function of the neck and face and prevent contracture?

• A. The neck extended backward using a rolled towel behind the neck
• B. Prone position using pillows to support both arms outward from the torso
• C. Side-lying position using pillows to support the abdomen and back
• D. The neck forward using pillows under the head and sandbags on both sides

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After sustaining burns to the face and neck, positioning is crucial to maintain functional posture, reduce pain, and prevent contractures. Placing the neck forward using pillows under the head and sandbags on both sides is the best option in this scenario. This position helps prevent neck and facial contractures, allowing for optimal function and healing. Choices A, B, and C do not adequately address the specific needs of a client with burns to the face and neck. Choice A could potentially exacerbate neck contractures, Choice B focuses on arm support rather than neck and face positioning, and Choice C does not directly address the needs of the burned face and neck, making them less effective in preventing contractures in these critical areas.

5. A client with a diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). What is the primary goal of this medication?

• A. To reduce the risk of bleeding.
• B. To lower blood pressure.
• C. To stimulate red blood cell production.
• D. To increase appetite.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'To stimulate red blood cell production.' Epoetin alfa, such as Epogen, is used to treat anemia by stimulating red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease. This medication helps increase hemoglobin levels and reduce the need for blood transfusions. Option A, 'To reduce the risk of bleeding,' is incorrect as epoetin alfa does not directly impact bleeding risk. Option B, 'To lower blood pressure,' is incorrect as epoetin alfa is not indicated for blood pressure management. Option D, 'To increase appetite,' is also incorrect as the primary goal of epoetin alfa is related to improving anemia by boosting red blood cell production.

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