HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam
1. A client admitted to the hospital with advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism is exhibiting ascites and edema. Which pathophysiological mechanisms should the nurse identify as responsible for the third spacing symptoms? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Portal hypertension.
- B. Sodium and water retention.
- C. Decreased serum albumin.
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism, ascites and edema occur due to multiple pathophysiological mechanisms. Portal hypertension contributes to the development of ascites by increasing pressure in the portal venous system. Sodium and water retention exacerbate fluid accumulation in the third space. Decreased serum albumin levels lead to reduced oncotic pressure, contributing to the movement of fluid into the interstitial spaces. Abnormal protein metabolism further disrupts fluid balance. Therefore, all of the options (A, B, and C) are correct in this scenario, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C alone do not fully explain the comprehensive pathophysiological mechanisms involved in the development of ascites and edema in this clinical context.
2. Based on the documentation in the medical record, which action should the nurse implement next?
- A. Administer the rubella vaccine subcutaneously
- B. Observe the mother breastfeeding her infant
- C. Call the nursery for the infant's blood type result
- D. Administer Vicodin one tablet for pain
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to observe the mother breastfeeding her infant. This action is essential to ensure that the infant is feeding well and to assess maternal-infant bonding. Administering the rubella vaccine subcutaneously (Option A) is not the immediate priority in this scenario as assessing breastfeeding is more crucial. Calling the nursery for the infant's blood type result (Option C) is premature and not the next appropriate step, as it does not address the immediate needs of the newborn. Administering Vicodin one tablet for pain (Option D) is not indicated without further assessment or indication of pain, making it an incorrect choice at this time.
3. Before administration of a stat dose of potassium chloride IV for a client with hypokalemia, what is the most important action for the nurse?
- A. Ensure the IV is flowing freely
- B. Mix the medication thoroughly
- C. Check the client’s electrolyte levels
- D. Obtain a baseline ECG
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most crucial action for the nurse before administering a stat dose of potassium chloride IV to a client with hypokalemia is to ensure the IV is flowing freely. A freely flowing IV is essential to safely and effectively deliver potassium chloride, helping to prevent infusion-related issues. Checking the client's electrolyte levels or obtaining a baseline ECG may be important but are not the most critical actions before administering the medication. Mixing the medication thoroughly is not applicable in this scenario as potassium chloride is typically provided ready to use.
4. The nurse assigns an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to feed a client who is at risk for aspiration. What action should the nurse take to ensure safety?
- A. Inform the UAP that suction is available at the bedside.
- B. Instruct the UAP to notify the nurse if the client chokes.
- C. Observe the UAP's ability to implement precautions during feeding.
- D. Ask the UAP about previous experience in performing this skill.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Observing the UAP's ability to implement precautions during feeding is crucial to ensuring the client's safety, especially when there is a risk of aspiration. This hands-on observation allows the nurse to assess whether the UAP is competent in handling the feeding procedure safely. Informing the UAP about suction availability (Choice A) is important but does not directly assess the UAP's ability during feeding. Instructing the UAP to notify the nurse if the client chokes (Choice B) focuses on reactive measures rather than proactive supervision. Asking about previous experience (Choice D) does not provide real-time information on the UAP's current competency in handling the specific feeding task for the at-risk client.
5. The nurse explains the 2-week dosage prescription of prednisone (Deltasone) to a client who has poison ivy over multiple skin surfaces. What should the nurse emphasize about the dosing schedule?
- A. Decrease the dosage daily as prescribed
- B. Monitor oral temperature daily
- C. Take the prednisone with meals
- D. Return for blood glucose monitoring in one week
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Decrease the dosage daily as prescribed.' Tapering the dosage of prednisone is crucial to prevent withdrawal symptoms and minimize the side effects of corticosteroid therapy. Decreasing the dosage gradually over time allows the body to adjust and reduces the risk of adrenal insufficiency. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Monitoring oral temperature daily, taking prednisone with meals, or returning for blood glucose monitoring in one week are not specific to the dosing schedule of prednisone for poison ivy treatment.
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