Nursing Elites

1. A client admitted to the hospital with advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism is exhibiting ascites and edema. Which pathophysiological mechanisms should the nurse identify as responsible for the third spacing symptoms? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Portal hypertension.
• B. Sodium and water retention.
• C. Decreased serum albumin.
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism, ascites and edema occur due to multiple pathophysiological mechanisms. Portal hypertension contributes to the development of ascites by increasing pressure in the portal venous system. Sodium and water retention exacerbate fluid accumulation in the third space. Decreased serum albumin levels lead to reduced oncotic pressure, contributing to the movement of fluid into the interstitial spaces. Abnormal protein metabolism further disrupts fluid balance. Therefore, all of the options (A, B, and C) are correct in this scenario, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C alone do not fully explain the comprehensive pathophysiological mechanisms involved in the development of ascites and edema in this clinical context.

2. Which client assessment falls within the scope of practice for the practical nurse?

• A. An agitated client with bilateral wrist restraints
• B. New admission of a client with deep vein thrombosis
• C. Return of a post-anesthesia client following a colon resection
• D. Transfer of a client with sepsis from a long-term care facility

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because assessing a new deep vein thrombosis (DVT) patient is within the scope of practical nursing. It involves monitoring and supporting the circulatory system health, which is a common responsibility for practical nurses. Choices A, C, and D involve scenarios that are typically beyond the initial assessment and care provided by practical nurses. An agitated client with bilateral wrist restraints may require immediate intervention by higher-level healthcare providers due to safety concerns and potential underlying issues. The return of a post-anesthesia client following a colon resection and the transfer of a client with sepsis involve more specialized care that goes beyond the typical responsibilities of a practical nurse, often requiring interventions from registered nurses or physicians.

3. The nurse is monitoring a client who started taking a new medication for rheumatoid arthritis. What is the most important aspect to monitor?

• A. Signs of gastrointestinal bleeding
• B. Liver function tests
• C. Renal function tests
• D. All necessary monitoring based on the medication prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client starts a new medication for rheumatoid arthritis, it is crucial to monitor all necessary aspects based on the specific medication prescribed. Different medications can have varying side effects and impacts on different organ systems. Monitoring all relevant parameters ensures the early detection of any adverse effects and helps to maintain the client's safety. While monitoring for signs of gastrointestinal bleeding, liver function tests, and renal function tests are all important in certain situations, the priority is to conduct comprehensive monitoring based on the medication's known effects.

4. The nurse plans to evaluate the effectiveness of several drugs administered by different routes. Arrange the routes of administration from fastest to slowest rate of absorption. 1. Intravenous 2. Sublingual 3. Intramuscular 4. Subcutaneous

• A. 1,2,3,4
• B. 4,3,2,1
• C. 2,4,3,1
• D. 3,4,1,2

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct order of routes of administration from fastest to slowest rate of absorption is 1. Intravenous, 2. Sublingual, 3. Intramuscular, 4. Subcutaneous. Intravenous administration provides the fastest absorption as the drug is directly injected into the bloodstream. Sublingual administration allows for rapid absorption through the mucous membranes under the tongue. Intramuscular administration has a slower absorption rate as the drug is injected into the muscle tissue. Subcutaneous administration is the slowest as the drug is injected into the fatty tissue under the skin, leading to a slower absorption compared to the other routes.

5. Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?

• A. A 50-year-old client with a fractured femur
• B. A 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus
• C. A 65-year-old client with limited mobility
• D. A 70-year-old client with a history of stroke

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with limited mobility are at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body. This constant pressure can lead to tissue damage and ultimately result in pressure ulcers. While age and medical conditions such as diabetes and a history of stroke can contribute to the risk of pressure ulcers, limited mobility is the most significant factor as it directly affects the ability to shift positions and relieve pressure on vulnerable areas of the body. Therefore, the 65-year-old client with limited mobility is at the highest risk compared to the other clients. The 50-year-old client with a fractured femur may have limited mobility due to the injury, but it is temporary and may not be as prolonged as chronic limited mobility. The 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus and the 70-year-old client with a history of stroke are at risk for developing pressure ulcers, but their conditions do not directly impact their ability to shift positions and alleviate pressure like limited mobility does.

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