HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam
1. A client admitted to the hospital with advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism is exhibiting ascites and edema. Which pathophysiological mechanisms should the nurse identify as responsible for the third spacing symptoms? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Portal hypertension.
- B. Sodium and water retention.
- C. Decreased serum albumin.
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism, ascites and edema occur due to multiple pathophysiological mechanisms. Portal hypertension contributes to the development of ascites by increasing pressure in the portal venous system. Sodium and water retention exacerbate fluid accumulation in the third space. Decreased serum albumin levels lead to reduced oncotic pressure, contributing to the movement of fluid into the interstitial spaces. Abnormal protein metabolism further disrupts fluid balance. Therefore, all of the options (A, B, and C) are correct in this scenario, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C alone do not fully explain the comprehensive pathophysiological mechanisms involved in the development of ascites and edema in this clinical context.
2. A client is admitted with Atrial Fibrillation and is administered amiodarone (Cordarone). What therapeutic response should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Conversion of irregular heart rate to regular heart rhythm
- B. Pulse oximetry readings within normal range during activity
- C. Peripheral pulse points with adequate capillary refill
- D. Increase in exercise tolerance without shortness of breath
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Conversion of irregular heart rate to regular heart rhythm. Amiodarone is a medication commonly used to restore and maintain normal heart rhythm in clients with atrial fibrillation. It works by slowing down the electrical signals in the heart, helping to regulate the heartbeat. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the therapeutic response expected from administering amiodarone in a client with atrial fibrillation. Pulse oximetry readings, peripheral pulses, capillary refill, and exercise tolerance are important assessments but are not the primary therapeutic goal of using amiodarone in this situation.
3. A client with a history of seizure disorder who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) is being discharged. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime.
- B. Monitor drug levels regularly.
- C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. Take the medication at the same time every day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor drug levels regularly. This is crucial for phenytoin (Dilantin) to ensure that the medication levels are within the therapeutic range and to prevent toxicity. Choice A, taking the medication at bedtime, is not specifically required for phenytoin administration. Choice C, avoiding alcohol, is generally a good practice with medications but is not as critical as monitoring drug levels for phenytoin. Choice D, taking the medication at the same time every day, is important for consistency but does not address the specific monitoring needs of phenytoin.
4. The nurse is assessing a client who has been receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) for several days. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypoglycemia. When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) with a high glucose content, the risk of hypoglycemia is significant due to sudden increases in insulin release in response to the glucose load. The nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia such as shakiness, sweating, palpitations, and confusion. Hyperglycemia (choice A) is not typically a complication of TPN as the high glucose content is more likely to cause hypoglycemia. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypokalemia (choice D) are electrolyte imbalances that can occur in clients receiving TPN, but hypoglycemia is the more common and immediate concern that the nurse should monitor for.
5. When reconstituted, how many milligrams are in each milliliter of solution?
- A. 300 mg/mL
- B. 350 mg/mL
- C. 450 mg/mL
- D. 400 mg/mL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After reconstitution, the concentration of the cefazolin solution is 400 mg/mL. This calculation is derived by dividing the total milligrams in the vial (1000 mg) by the total volume after reconstitution (2.5 mL). Therefore, each milliliter of the solution contains 400 mg of cefazolin. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not match the correct calculation based on the information provided.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access