HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam
1. A client admitted to the hospital with advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism is exhibiting ascites and edema. Which pathophysiological mechanisms should the nurse identify as responsible for the third spacing symptoms? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Portal hypertension.
- B. Sodium and water retention.
- C. Decreased serum albumin.
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism, ascites and edema occur due to multiple pathophysiological mechanisms. Portal hypertension contributes to the development of ascites by increasing pressure in the portal venous system. Sodium and water retention exacerbate fluid accumulation in the third space. Decreased serum albumin levels lead to reduced oncotic pressure, contributing to the movement of fluid into the interstitial spaces. Abnormal protein metabolism further disrupts fluid balance. Therefore, all of the options (A, B, and C) are correct in this scenario, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C alone do not fully explain the comprehensive pathophysiological mechanisms involved in the development of ascites and edema in this clinical context.
2. The healthcare provider reviews the laboratory results of a client whose serum pH is 7.38. What does this value imply about the client's homeostasis?
- A. Alkalosis
- B. Acidosis
- C. Normal serum pH
- D. Incompatible with life
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A pH of 7.38 falls within the normal range (7.35-7.45), indicating that the client’s acid-base balance is adequately maintained. Choices A and B are incorrect as alkalosis and acidosis refer to abnormal pH levels. Choice D is incorrect as a pH of 7.38 within the normal range is compatible with life.
3. A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?
- A. Possible exposure to an environmental staphylococcus infection can infect the newborn's eyes and cause visual deficits
- B. The newborn is at risk for blindness from a corneal syphilitic infection acquired from a mother's infected vagina
- C. Treatment prevents tear duct obstruction with harmful exudate from a vaginal birth that can lead to dry eyes in the newborn
- D. State law mandates all newborns receive prophylactic treatment to prevent gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.
4. A client is receiving dexamethasone (Decadron). What symptoms should the nurse recognize as Cushingoid side effects?
- A. Moon face, slow wound healing, muscle wasting, sodium and water retention
- B. Tachycardia, hypertension, weight loss, heat intolerance, nervousness, restlessness, tremor
- C. Bradycardia, weight gain, cold intolerance, myxedema facies and periorbital edema
- D. Hyperpigmentation, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, dehydration, hypotension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cushingoid side effects are characteristic of excess corticosteroid use, such as dexamethasone. These include moon face (rounding of the face), slow wound healing, muscle wasting, and sodium and water retention. Options B, C, and D describe symptoms that are not typically associated with Cushingoid side effects. Tachycardia, hypertension, weight loss, heat intolerance, nervousness, restlessness, tremor (Option B) are not typical of Cushingoid effects, while bradycardia, weight gain, cold intolerance, myxedema facies, and periorbital edema (Option C) are more indicative of hypothyroidism. Hyperpigmentation, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, dehydration, and hypotension (Option D) are not classical features of Cushingoid side effects.
5. A client with a history of stroke presents with dysphagia. What is the most important nursing intervention to prevent aspiration?
- A. Encourage the client to drink water between meals
- B. Position the client in a high-Fowler's position during meals
- C. Provide the client with thickened liquids
- D. Allow the client to eat quickly
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Position the client in a high-Fowler's position during meals. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position (sitting upright at a 90-degree angle) helps reduce the risk of aspiration by ensuring that the airway is protected during swallowing. This position facilitates easier swallowing and decreases the likelihood of food or liquids entering the respiratory tract. Encouraging the client to drink water between meals (choice A) does not directly address the risk of aspiration during meals. Providing thickened liquids (choice C) may be necessary for some patients with dysphagia but is not the most important intervention to prevent aspiration. Allowing the client to eat quickly (choice D) without proper positioning and precautions can increase the risk of aspiration.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access