HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam
1. A client admitted to the hospital with advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism is exhibiting ascites and edema. Which pathophysiological mechanisms should the nurse identify as responsible for the third spacing symptoms? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Portal hypertension.
- B. Sodium and water retention.
- C. Decreased serum albumin.
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism, ascites and edema occur due to multiple pathophysiological mechanisms. Portal hypertension contributes to the development of ascites by increasing pressure in the portal venous system. Sodium and water retention exacerbate fluid accumulation in the third space. Decreased serum albumin levels lead to reduced oncotic pressure, contributing to the movement of fluid into the interstitial spaces. Abnormal protein metabolism further disrupts fluid balance. Therefore, all of the options (A, B, and C) are correct in this scenario, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C alone do not fully explain the comprehensive pathophysiological mechanisms involved in the development of ascites and edema in this clinical context.
2. A hospitalized toddler who is recovering from a sickle cell crisis holds a toy and says 'Mine'. According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, this child's behavior is a demonstration of which developmental stage?
- A. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
- B. Industry vs. Inferiority
- C. Initiative vs. Guilt
- D. Trust vs. Mistrust
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt. In Erikson's theory, toddlers aged 1-3 years are in the Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt stage. During this stage, children begin to assert their independence and control over their environment. The behavior of the hospitalized toddler holding a toy and saying 'Mine' demonstrates the child's developing sense of autonomy and ownership. Choices B, C, and D correspond to different stages in Erikson's theory: Industry vs. Inferiority (school-age children), Initiative vs. Guilt (preschoolers), and Trust vs. Mistrust (infants), respectively, which are not applicable to the behavior described.
3. The nurse is preparing to administer a tuberculin skin test (TST). Which area of the body is the preferred site for this injection?
- A. Deltoid muscle
- B. Inner forearm
- C. Abdomen
- D. Thigh
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The inner forearm is the preferred site for administering a tuberculin skin test (TST) due to its easy accessibility, minimal hair interference, and good visibility of the injection site, allowing for accurate interpretation of the test results. The deltoid muscle, abdomen, and thigh are not preferred sites for a TST as they may not provide the optimal conditions required for the test. The deltoid muscle is commonly used for intramuscular injections, the abdomen may have varying subcutaneous fat thickness affecting the test, and the thigh may not provide the necessary visibility for accurate reading.
4. A client with a history of seizure disorder who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) is being discharged. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime.
- B. Monitor drug levels regularly.
- C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. Take the medication at the same time every day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor drug levels regularly. This is crucial for phenytoin (Dilantin) to ensure that the medication levels are within the therapeutic range and to prevent toxicity. Choice A, taking the medication at bedtime, is not specifically required for phenytoin administration. Choice C, avoiding alcohol, is generally a good practice with medications but is not as critical as monitoring drug levels for phenytoin. Choice D, taking the medication at the same time every day, is important for consistency but does not address the specific monitoring needs of phenytoin.
5. The nurse is caring for a client who is 4 hours post-operative from abdominal surgery. The client is complaining of severe pain. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Reassess the pain and its characteristics
- B. Administer prescribed pain medication
- C. Notify the surgeon
- D. Encourage the use of relaxation techniques
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when a post-operative client complains of severe pain is to reassess the pain and its characteristics. Reassessment is crucial to understand the nature and intensity of the pain, which will guide the nurse in providing appropriate interventions. Administering pain medication may be necessary but should only be done after reassessment to ensure the right medication and dose are given. Notifying the surgeon may be required in certain situations, but reassessment of pain should precede this action. Encouraging relaxation techniques is not the priority when a client is experiencing severe pain post-operatively.
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