Nursing Elites

1. A client admitted to the hospital with advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism is exhibiting ascites and edema. Which pathophysiological mechanisms should the nurse identify as responsible for the third spacing symptoms? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Portal hypertension.
• B. Sodium and water retention.
• C. Decreased serum albumin.
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism, ascites and edema occur due to multiple pathophysiological mechanisms. Portal hypertension contributes to the development of ascites by increasing pressure in the portal venous system. Sodium and water retention exacerbate fluid accumulation in the third space. Decreased serum albumin levels lead to reduced oncotic pressure, contributing to the movement of fluid into the interstitial spaces. Abnormal protein metabolism further disrupts fluid balance. Therefore, all of the options (A, B, and C) are correct in this scenario, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C alone do not fully explain the comprehensive pathophysiological mechanisms involved in the development of ascites and edema in this clinical context.

2. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyponatremia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyponatremia. Lithium can affect sodium levels in the body, potentially leading to hyponatremia, which is a condition characterized by low sodium levels. This imbalance requires close monitoring as it can lead to symptoms such as confusion, weakness, and even seizures. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because lithium is not primarily associated with causing hypokalemia, hypercalcemia, or hypernatremia. While these imbalances can occur in certain conditions or with other medications, the main electrolyte imbalance to monitor when a client is prescribed lithium is hyponatremia.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving hemodialysis. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Decreased urine output
• B. Weight loss of 1 kg
• C. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg
• D. Presence of a bruit over the fistula

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. An elevated blood pressure in clients with chronic kidney disease undergoing hemodialysis can indicate fluid overload or poor dialysis efficacy and should be reported immediately. This finding could lead to complications such as heart failure or pulmonary edema. Choices A, B, and D are not as critical in this situation. Decreased urine output may be expected due to the kidney disease, a weight loss of 1 kg is within an acceptable range, and the presence of a bruit over the fistula is a common finding in clients undergoing hemodialysis and does not require immediate reporting.

4. During the assessment of a client who has suffered a stroke, what finding would indicate a complication?

• A. Difficulty swallowing
• B. A slight headache
• C. High blood pressure
• D. Muscle weakness on one side

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) can indicate complications such as aspiration risk, which is common after a stroke due to impaired swallowing reflexes. It poses a serious threat to the client's respiratory system. Options B, C, and D are less likely to indicate immediate complications post-stroke. A slight headache is a common complaint and may not necessarily indicate a complication. High blood pressure is a known risk factor for strokes but may not be an immediate post-stroke complication unless it is severely elevated. Muscle weakness on one side is a common sign of stroke but may not directly indicate a new complication.

5. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. What should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Avoid driving for at least 2 weeks
• B. Resume a low-fat diet
• C. Remove the bandages from the incision after 24 hours
• D. Expect significant pain for the first week

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Remove the bandages from the incision after 24 hours.' Prompt removal of bandages after 24 hours promotes proper wound healing and reduces the risk of infection. Choice A is incorrect because avoiding driving for 2 weeks may not be universally necessary post-cholecystectomy. Choice B is incorrect because while a low-fat diet is recommended after surgery, it is not directly related to incision care. Choice D is incorrect because while pain is common post-surgery, stating 'significant pain for the first week' may not apply to all patients, potentially causing unnecessary anxiety.

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