HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam
1. A client admitted to the hospital with advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism is exhibiting ascites and edema. Which pathophysiological mechanisms should the nurse identify as responsible for the third spacing symptoms? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Portal hypertension.
- B. Sodium and water retention.
- C. Decreased serum albumin.
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism, ascites and edema occur due to multiple pathophysiological mechanisms. Portal hypertension contributes to the development of ascites by increasing pressure in the portal venous system. Sodium and water retention exacerbate fluid accumulation in the third space. Decreased serum albumin levels lead to reduced oncotic pressure, contributing to the movement of fluid into the interstitial spaces. Abnormal protein metabolism further disrupts fluid balance. Therefore, all of the options (A, B, and C) are correct in this scenario, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C alone do not fully explain the comprehensive pathophysiological mechanisms involved in the development of ascites and edema in this clinical context.
2. A client is prescribed metformin for the management of type 2 diabetes. What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Stimulates insulin secretion from the pancreas.
- B. Increases insulin sensitivity in various tissues.
- C. Decreases hepatic glucose production.
- D. Delays absorption of glucose from the intestines.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreases hepatic glucose production. Metformin primarily works by reducing the production of glucose in the liver (hepatic glucose production) and by improving insulin sensitivity in various tissues. Choice A is incorrect as metformin does not stimulate insulin secretion from the pancreas. Choice B is incorrect as metformin increases insulin sensitivity in various tissues, not just muscle cells. Choice D is incorrect as metformin does not delay glucose absorption from the intestines.
3. A client is scheduled for a sigmoidoscopy and expresses anxiety about the procedure. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Offer information about the procedure steps
- B. Administer an anxiolytic before the procedure
- C. Encourage the client to discuss their fears
- D. Reassure the client that the procedure is common and safe
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse when a client expresses anxiety about a procedure is to encourage the client to discuss their fears. By allowing the client to express their concerns, the nurse can provide personalized support, address specific worries, and offer tailored information. This approach helps to establish trust, reduce anxiety, and promote a therapeutic nurse-client relationship. Offering information about the procedure steps (Choice A) may be helpful but should come after addressing the client's fears. Administering an anxiolytic (Choice B) should not be the first action as it focuses on symptom management rather than addressing the underlying cause of anxiety. Reassuring the client that the procedure is common and safe (Choice D) is important but should follow active listening and addressing the client's fears.
4. During a tonic-clonic seizure, what is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Insert an oral airway
- B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
- C. Restrain the client's arms and legs
- D. Protect the client's head from injury
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a tonic-clonic seizure, the nurse's priority intervention is to protect the client's head from injury. This is crucial to prevent trauma, as head injuries can be severe during a seizure. Inserting an oral airway may cause injury or obstruction during the seizure and is not recommended. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula can be done after ensuring the client's safety. Restraining the client's arms and legs is also not recommended as it can lead to further injury or harm.
5. During a bed bath, the nurse observes that a client's IV site is red and swollen. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Discontinue the IV under physician's guidance
- B. Apply a warm compress to the site
- C. Notify the physician
- D. Document the appearance of the site and continue the bath
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct first action when a nurse observes a red and swollen IV site during a bed bath is to notify the physician. This is crucial because prompt reporting allows for immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Discontinuing the IV (Choice A) should only be done under the physician's guidance to avoid any adverse effects and ensure proper care. Applying a warm compress (Choice B) may not address the underlying issue and could potentially worsen the situation if the cause is an infection or infiltration. Documenting the site's appearance and continuing the bath (Choice D) without immediate action might delay necessary treatment, leading to potential complications.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access