Nursing Elites

1. A client admitted to the hospital with advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism is exhibiting ascites and edema. Which pathophysiological mechanisms should the nurse identify as responsible for the third spacing symptoms? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Portal hypertension.
• B. Sodium and water retention.
• C. Decreased serum albumin.
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism, ascites and edema occur due to multiple pathophysiological mechanisms. Portal hypertension contributes to the development of ascites by increasing pressure in the portal venous system. Sodium and water retention exacerbate fluid accumulation in the third space. Decreased serum albumin levels lead to reduced oncotic pressure, contributing to the movement of fluid into the interstitial spaces. Abnormal protein metabolism further disrupts fluid balance. Therefore, all of the options (A, B, and C) are correct in this scenario, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C alone do not fully explain the comprehensive pathophysiological mechanisms involved in the development of ascites and edema in this clinical context.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with hyperkalemia. Which finding is consistent with this electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Muscle weakness
• B. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
• C. Constipation
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Muscle weakness is a common finding in clients with hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia can lead to muscle weakness due to the effect of high potassium levels on muscle function. Decreased deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) are not typically associated with hyperkalemia; instead, hyperreflexia or increased reflexes may be observed. Constipation (Choice C) is not a common symptom of hyperkalemia. Hypotension (Choice D) is also not a typical finding in hyperkalemia; instead, hypertension or normal blood pressure may be present.

3. The practical nurse is preparing to administer a prescription for cefazolin (Kefzol) 600 mg IM every six hours. The available vial is labeled, 'Cefazolin (Kefzol) 1 gram,' and the instructions for reconstitution state, 'For IM use add 2 ml sterile water for injection. Total volume after reconstitution = 2.5 ml.' When reconstituted, how many milligrams are in each milliliter of solution?

• A. 400 mg/mL
• B. 500 mg/mL
• C. 450 mg/mL
• D. 350 mg/mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After reconstitution, the concentration of cefazolin solution is calculated by dividing the total amount of drug (600 mg) by the total volume after reconstitution (2.5 mL). This gives 600 mg / 2.5 mL = 240 mg/mL. However, the question asks for the concentration in each milliliter of solution after reconstitution, so we need to consider the final volume of 2.5 mL. Therefore, 240 mg/mL * 2.5 mL = 600 mg, which means each milliliter contains 240 mg of cefazolin. Therefore, after reconstitution, there are 400 mg of cefazolin in each milliliter of solution. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the concentration after reconstitution.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is struggling to breathe. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Increase the oxygen flow rate according to the prescription
• B. Encourage the client to perform pursed-lip breathing
• C. Prepare for emergency intubation
• D. Assess the client's oxygen saturation and breath sounds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for a nurse when a client with COPD is struggling to breathe is to assess the client's oxygen saturation and breath sounds. This initial assessment is crucial in determining the severity of the client's condition and the appropriate intervention. Increasing the oxygen flow rate without proper assessment can potentially be harmful, as COPD clients have a risk of retaining carbon dioxide. Encouraging pursed-lip breathing can be beneficial but should come after assessing the client's current status. Emergency intubation is a drastic measure and should only be considered after a comprehensive assessment indicates the need for it.

5. Which intervention is most effective in preventing the spread of infection in a healthcare setting?

• A. Wearing gloves
• B. Using hand sanitizer
• C. Practicing hand hygiene
• D. Disinfecting surfaces

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Practicing hand hygiene is the most effective measure to prevent the spread of infection in healthcare settings. While wearing gloves, using hand sanitizer, and disinfecting surfaces are important infection control measures, they are not as effective as proper hand hygiene. Hand hygiene, including handwashing with soap and water or using alcohol-based hand sanitizers, is crucial in preventing the transmission of pathogens from one person to another, making it the best choice among the options provided. Wearing gloves primarily protects the wearer and is not a substitute for hand hygiene. Using hand sanitizer is helpful but may not be as effective as proper handwashing. Disinfecting surfaces is important but does not address the direct transmission of pathogens through hand contact, which hand hygiene effectively prevents.

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