Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing to administer a tuberculin skin test (TST). Which area of the body is the preferred site for this injection?

• A. Deltoid muscle
• B. Inner forearm
• C. Abdomen
• D. Thigh

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The inner forearm is the preferred site for administering a tuberculin skin test (TST) due to its easy accessibility, minimal hair interference, and good visibility of the injection site, allowing for accurate interpretation of the test results. The deltoid muscle, abdomen, and thigh are not preferred sites for a TST as they may not provide the optimal conditions required for the test. The deltoid muscle is commonly used for intramuscular injections, the abdomen may have varying subcutaneous fat thickness affecting the test, and the thigh may not provide the necessary visibility for accurate reading.

2. A client with asthma is prescribed an albuterol inhaler. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Use the inhaler only during an asthma attack
• B. Rinse your mouth after using the inhaler
• C. Shake the inhaler before each use
• D. Exhale fully before inhaling the medication

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide is to shake the inhaler before each use. Shaking the inhaler ensures proper mixing of the medication before administration, which is crucial for its effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because albuterol inhalers are often used as a preventive measure, not just during asthma attacks. Choice B is a good practice to prevent oral fungal infections associated with inhaled corticosteroids, not typically with albuterol. Choice D is important for proper inhaler technique, but the primary step before inhaling is shaking the inhaler to ensure the medication is well mixed.

3. A client with a history of stroke presents with dysphagia. What is the most important nursing intervention to prevent aspiration?

• A. Encourage the client to drink water between meals
• B. Position the client in a high-Fowler's position during meals
• C. Provide the client with thickened liquids
• D. Allow the client to eat quickly

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Position the client in a high-Fowler's position during meals. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position (sitting upright at a 90-degree angle) helps reduce the risk of aspiration by ensuring that the airway is protected during swallowing. This position facilitates easier swallowing and decreases the likelihood of food or liquids entering the respiratory tract. Encouraging the client to drink water between meals (choice A) does not directly address the risk of aspiration during meals. Providing thickened liquids (choice C) may be necessary for some patients with dysphagia but is not the most important intervention to prevent aspiration. Allowing the client to eat quickly (choice D) without proper positioning and precautions can increase the risk of aspiration.

4. Based on the Nursing diagnosis of 'Potential for infection related to second and third degree burns,' which intervention has the highest priority?

• A. Application of topical antibacterial cream
• B. Use of careful hand washing technique
• C. Administration of plasma expanders
• D. Limiting visitors to the burned client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The highest priority intervention in this scenario is B, the use of careful hand washing technique. Proper hand hygiene is essential in preventing infection, especially in individuals with compromised skin integrity like those with burns. By practicing careful hand washing, healthcare providers reduce the risk of introducing harmful pathogens to the burn wound, thus lowering the chances of infections. Choice A, application of topical antibacterial cream, is important but should follow ensuring proper hand hygiene. Choice C, administration of plasma expanders, is not directly associated with preventing burn-related infections. Choice D, limiting visitors, is significant for infection control, but ensuring proper hand hygiene outweighs this intervention in terms of priority.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is being evaluated for dialysis. Which laboratory value would be most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Hemoglobin 9.5 g/dL
• B. Potassium 6.2 mEq/L
• C. Creatinine 3.5 mg/dL
• D. BUN 50 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium 6.2 mEq/L. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys struggle to regulate potassium levels, leading to hyperkalemia. A potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L is dangerously high and can cause life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Hemoglobin of 9.5 g/dL may indicate anemia, which is common in chronic kidney disease but is not immediately life-threatening. Creatinine and BUN levels are markers of kidney function; although elevated levels indicate kidney impairment, they are not acutely life-threatening like severe hyperkalemia.

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