Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is teaching a client with glomerulonephritis about self-care. Which dietary recommendations should the nurse encourage the client to follow?

• A. Increase intake of high-fiber foods, such as bran cereal
• B. Restrict protein intake by limiting meats and other high-protein foods.
• C. Limit oral fluid intake to 500ml per day
• D. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods such as bananas and cantaloupe.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Restrict protein intake by limiting meats and other high-protein foods. In glomerulonephritis, reducing protein intake helps to lower the workload on the kidneys, as excessive protein can lead to increased production of waste products that the kidneys must filter. This restriction can help prevent further damage to the kidneys. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A) Increasing high-fiber foods like bran cereal is beneficial for other conditions but not specific to glomerulonephritis. C) Limiting oral fluid intake to 500ml per day is not appropriate as fluid restrictions are usually individualized based on the client's condition and kidney function. D) Increasing potassium-rich foods like bananas and cantaloupe may not be suitable for all clients with glomerulonephritis, as potassium levels can be affected in kidney disease and individual needs may vary.

2. The nurse explains to the parents of a child with developmental hip dysplasia that the application of a Pavlik harness is necessary. In what position will the harness hold the child's femurs?

• A. Abduction
• B. Adduction
• C. Flexion
• D. Extension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Abduction. The use of the Pavlik harness is to maintain the hips in abduction for 4 to 6 months to treat developmental hip dysplasia. This position helps in stabilizing the hip joint and promoting proper growth and development. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the Pavlik harness specifically aims to hold the child's femurs in abduction, not adduction, flexion, or extension.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory result is most indicative of this condition?

• A. Elevated serum amylase
• B. Decreased serum bilirubin
• C. Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• D. Decreased alkaline phosphatase

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevated serum amylase is the most indicative laboratory result of acute pancreatitis. In this condition, the pancreas becomes inflamed, leading to the leakage of amylase and lipase into the bloodstream. Elevated serum amylase levels are a classic finding in acute pancreatitis. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. Decreased serum bilirubin, increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN), and decreased alkaline phosphatase levels are not specific markers for acute pancreatitis.

4. Laboratory findings indicate that a client’s serum potassium level is 2.5 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer potassium supplements orally.
• B. Increase the client's dietary potassium intake.
• C. Inform the healthcare provider of the need for potassium replacement.
• D. Monitor the client's ECG continuously.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 2.5 mEq/L is critically low, indicating severe hypokalemia. In this situation, it is essential for the nurse to inform the healthcare provider promptly about the need for potassium replacement. Administering potassium supplements orally or increasing dietary potassium intake is not appropriate in cases of critically low potassium levels as immediate and precise replacement is necessary. Monitoring the client's ECG continuously is important in severe cases of hypokalemia, but the priority action should be to inform the healthcare provider for further management and treatment.

5. An older client is receiving an IV of 5% dextrose in 0.45% normal saline at 75 mL/hour. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the client is developing a complication from this therapy?

• A. Capillary refill takes > 3 seconds.
• B. Episodes of vertigo and loss of balance.
• C. Average daily output of 1200 ml.
• D. Pulse rate of 110 beats/minute and dyspnea upon exertion.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Tachycardia and dyspnea are signs of fluid overload, which is a potential complication of IV fluid therapy. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to fluid overload and are not typical signs of complications associated with the IV fluid therapy being administered.

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