Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of chronic pain requests a nonopioid analgesic. The client is alert but has difficulty describing the exact nature and location of the pain to the nurse. What action should the nurse implement next?

• A. Administer the analgesic as requested.
• B. Request a pain assessment from another nurse.
• C. Ask the client to describe the pain more precisely.
• D. Delay administration until the pain is better described.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement next is to delay administration until the pain is better described. It is essential to have a clear understanding of the nature and location of the pain before administering any analgesic to ensure appropriate and effective pain management. Requesting a pain assessment from another nurse or asking the client to describe the pain more precisely would also be appropriate actions to obtain more information before administering the analgesic. Administering the analgesic as requested without a clear description of the pain may not address the client's needs effectively and could potentially lead to ineffective pain management.

2. While walking to the mailbox, an older adult male experiences sudden chest tightness and drives himself to the emergency department. When the client gets up to the desk of the triage nurse, he says his heart is pounding out of his chest as he clutches his chest and falls to the floor. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Prepare for cardiac defibrillation.
• B. Apply cardiac monitor leads.
• C. Obtain troponin serum levels.
• D. Palpate the client’s artery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Palpating the client's artery is the priority intervention in this scenario because it helps determine if there is a pulse, which is crucial information in emergency situations like this. If the client is pulseless, immediate initiation of CPR is necessary. Applying cardiac monitor leads or obtaining troponin serum levels can wait until the presence of a pulse is confirmed. Cardiac defibrillation is not indicated without first assessing the client's pulse and cardiac rhythm.

3. The nurse reports that a client is at risk for a brain attack (stroke) based on which assessment finding?

• A. Nuchal rigidity
• B. Carotid bruit
• C. Jugular vein distention
• D. Palpable cervical lymph node

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Carotid bruit. A carotid bruit is a significant risk factor for stroke as it indicates turbulent blood flow due to narrowing of the carotid artery. Nuchal rigidity is associated with meningitis, jugular vein distention can be a sign of heart failure, and palpable cervical lymph nodes may indicate infection, but they are not directly linked to stroke risk.

4. The wife of a client with Parkinson's disease expresses concern because her husband has lost so much weight. Which teaching is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Invite friends over regularly to share meal times
• B. Encourage the client to drink clear liquids between meals
• C. Coach the client to make an intentional effort to swallow
• D. Talk to the healthcare provider about prescribing an appetite stimulant

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best teaching for the nurse to provide is to invite friends over regularly to share meal times. This can help in making meal times more enjoyable for the client with Parkinson's disease, potentially encouraging him to eat more. Encouraging clear liquids between meals (choice B) may not address the underlying issue of weight loss. Coaching the client to make an intentional effort to swallow (choice C) may not be effective if the weight loss is due to other factors related to Parkinson's disease. While prescribing an appetite stimulant (choice D) could be an option, it is usually recommended to explore non-pharmacological interventions first, making choice A the most appropriate initial teaching intervention.

5. The settings on a client's synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) are respiratory rate 12 breaths/minute, tidal volume at 600 mL, FiO2 35%, and positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) 5 cm H2O. Which assessment finding necessitates immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases.
• B. Low-pressure indicator alarm.
• C. Oxygen saturation of 91%.
• D. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low-pressure alarm may indicate a disconnection or leak in the system, which needs immediate intervention. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases may indicate fluid overload but do not require immediate intervention in this case. An oxygen saturation of 91% is concerning but not as urgent as a potential equipment issue. A respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute is higher than the set rate but may not necessitate immediate intervention unless accompanied by other distress symptoms.

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