Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of chronic pain requests a nonopioid analgesic. The client is alert but has difficulty describing the exact nature and location of the pain to the nurse. What action should the nurse implement next?

• A. Administer the analgesic as requested.
• B. Request a pain assessment from another nurse.
• C. Ask the client to describe the pain more precisely.
• D. Delay administration until the pain is better described.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement next is to delay administration until the pain is better described. It is essential to have a clear understanding of the nature and location of the pain before administering any analgesic to ensure appropriate and effective pain management. Requesting a pain assessment from another nurse or asking the client to describe the pain more precisely would also be appropriate actions to obtain more information before administering the analgesic. Administering the analgesic as requested without a clear description of the pain may not address the client's needs effectively and could potentially lead to ineffective pain management.

2. A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24h with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackle and bounding central pulses. Vital signs: temperature 101.2°F, Heart rate 96 beats/min, Respirations 24 breaths/min, and Blood pressure 160/90 mmHg. Which interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Review the last administration of IV pain medication.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen.
• C. Decrease IV fluids to keep the vein open (KVO) rate.
• D. Calculate total intake and output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease IV fluids to the keep vein open (KVO) rate. The client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, headache, elevated CVP, crackles, bounding pulses, and increased blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids will help prevent further fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the fluid balance issue is the priority. Administering a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with the headache but does not address the underlying fluid overload. Calculating total intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the immediate issue of fluid overload and its associated symptoms.

3. The nurse caring for a hospitalized older client with a left hip fracture as a result of a fall at home notices different assessment findings. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Pain rated 7/10 on the pain scale.
• B. Mild swelling at the fracture site.
• C. Small amount of bleeding from the surgical site.
• D. Left extremity capillary refill greater than 5 seconds.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A left extremity capillary refill greater than 5 seconds indicates poor blood flow to the extremity, which is a sign of compromised circulation. This finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse to prevent complications such as tissue damage or necrosis. Choices A, B, and C are important assessments but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention like the delayed capillary refill in choice D.

4. When speaking to young parents, the nurse states that lead poisoning is one of the most common preventable health problems affecting children. What condition occurs when the level of lead ingested exceeds the amount that can be absorbed by the bone?

• A. Malnutrition
• B. Anemia
• C. Bone pain
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. When the amount of lead ingested exceeds the amount that can be absorbed by the bone, it leads to anemia. Malnutrition (Choice A) is a state of inadequate nutrition, not directly related to lead poisoning. Bone pain (Choice C) is a symptom of lead poisoning due to its effects on bones but not directly related to lead ingestion exceeding absorption. Diarrhea (Choice D) is not a direct consequence of lead ingestion exceeding absorption by bones.

5. A client with cirrhosis is receiving lactulose. What is the desired effect of this medication?

• A. Decrease blood glucose levels
• B. Reduce serum ammonia levels
• C. Increase platelet count
• D. Lower serum bilirubin levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduce serum ammonia levels. Lactulose is used to reduce serum ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis, helping to prevent hepatic encephalopathy. Lactulose works by acidifying the colon, trapping ammonia for excretion. Decreasing blood glucose levels (choice A) is not the primary effect of lactulose. Increasing platelet count (choice C) and lowering serum bilirubin levels (choice D) are not direct effects of lactulose in the management of cirrhosis.

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