a male client tells the nurse that he is experiencing burning on urination and assessment reveals that he had sexual intercourse four days ago with a
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Medical Surgical HESI 2023

1. A male client tells the nurse that he is experiencing burning on urination, and assessment reveals that he had sexual intercourse four days ago with a woman he casually met. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to obtain a specimen of urethral drainage for culture. This procedure can help diagnose the cause of burning on urination, which could be indicative of a sexually transmitted infection. Option A, observing for a chancroid-like lesion, may not be the most immediate or relevant action in this case. Option C, assessing for perineal itching, erythema, and excoriation, is important but obtaining a culture specimen would provide more specific diagnostic information. Option D, identifying all sexual partners, is relevant for contact tracing but obtaining a culture specimen is the priority to determine the current infection status.

2. A male client with heart failure calls the clinic and reports that he cannot put his shoes on because they are too tight. Which additional information should the nurse obtain?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Has his weight changed in the last several days?' Sudden weight gain can indicate fluid retention, which is a common symptom of worsening heart failure. The inability to put on tight shoes can be due to fluid retention leading to swelling in the feet and ankles. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the potential fluid retention issue and are less relevant in this scenario.

3. A client who has a history of hyperthyroidism was initially admitted with lethargy and confusion. Which additional finding warrants the most immediate action by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A further decline in LOC can indicate severe complications and requires immediate attention. This change may signify worsening neurological status, which could lead to life-threatening consequences if not addressed promptly. Choices A, B, and C may also be concerning in a client with a history of hyperthyroidism, but a further decline in LOC takes priority due to its potential for rapid deterioration and the need for urgent intervention.

4. A client who is newly diagnosed with emphysema is being prepared for discharge. Which instruction is best for the nurse to provide the client to assist them with dyspnea self-management?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Instructing the client to practice inhaling through the nose and exhaling slowly through pursed lips can help improve oxygenation and reduce dyspnea. This technique, known as pursed lip breathing, can help regulate breathing patterns and decrease the work of breathing in clients with emphysema. Choice A is incorrect because allowing additional time for physical activities does not directly address dyspnea management. Choice C is incorrect as using a humidifier, although beneficial for respiratory conditions, does not specifically assist with dyspnea self-management. Choice D is also incorrect as strengthening abdominal muscles through leg raises does not directly target dyspnea relief.

5. Which other congenital defects are common in children with Down syndrome?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Heart defects. Many children with Down syndrome are born with congenital heart defects. These heart abnormalities are more prevalent in individuals with Down syndrome than in the general population. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they may be congenital defects in children, they are not commonly associated with Down syndrome. Hypospadias is a urogenital condition, pyloric stenosis affects the stomach, and hip dysplasia involves the hip joint, but these are not typically seen as frequently as heart defects in children with Down syndrome.

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