HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI
1. Based on this strip, what is the interpretation of this rhythm?
- A. Atrial fibrillation.
- B. Ventricular tachycardia.
- C. Normal sinus rhythm.
- D. Second-degree heart block.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Normal sinus rhythm. Normal sinus rhythm is characterized by a regular rhythm, normal P waves, and a consistent PR interval. In this context, the strip likely shows a normal ECG pattern with these characteristics, indicating a healthy heart rhythm. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Atrial fibrillation would show an irregularly irregular rhythm with no discernible P waves. Ventricular tachycardia would display wide QRS complexes and a fast heart rate. Second-degree heart block would exhibit intermittent dropped QRS complexes.
2. A client who is receiving general anesthesia begins to demonstrate symptoms of malignant hyperthermia. Which intervention should the perioperative nurse prepare to implement first?
- A. Ensure patency of an indwelling catheter and measure hourly intake and output.
- B. Prepare for cessation of the anesthesia and the surgical procedure.
- C. Obtain specimens of ABGs and serum electrolytes.
- D. Initiate cooling measures using iced normal saline by nasogastric lavage.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prepare for cessation of the anesthesia and the surgical procedure. Malignant hyperthermia is a severe reaction to certain medications used during general anesthesia. The immediate intervention to manage malignant hyperthermia is to stop the triggering agents, which include anesthesia and surgery. Ensuring patency of an indwelling catheter and measuring intake and output, obtaining specimens of ABGs and serum electrolytes, and initiating cooling measures are important interventions but should follow the immediate action of stopping the anesthesia and surgery to address the life-threatening condition of malignant hyperthermia.
3. An older female client has normal saline infusing at 45 ml/hour. She complains of pain at the insertion of the IV catheter. There is no redness or edema around the IV site. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Determine what IV medications have recently been administered.
- B. Slow the infusion rate.
- C. Apply a warm compress to the IV site.
- D. Discontinue the IV line and start a new one.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to determine what IV medications have recently been administered. This is important to identify if the pain at the IV site is related to a medication infusion. Slowing the infusion rate (choice B) may not address the underlying cause of the pain. Applying a warm compress (choice C) is not necessary since there is no redness or edema around the IV site. Discontinuing the IV line and starting a new one (choice D) is a drastic step and should not be the first action taken without investigating the cause of the pain.
4. A male client with diabetes mellitus is transferred from the hospital to a rehabilitation facility following treatment for a stroke resulting in right hemiplegia. He tells the nurse that his feet are always uncomfortably cool at night, preventing him from falling asleep. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Provide a warming pad for his feet
- B. Medicate the client with a prescribed sedative.
- C. Use a bed cradle to keep the covers off his feet.
- D. Place warm blankets next to the client's feet.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Placing warm blankets next to the client's feet is the most appropriate action to provide warmth and comfort. This method is safe and effective in addressing the client's complaint of uncomfortably cool feet at night. Providing a warming pad (Choice A) may pose a risk of burns or injury, especially for a client with decreased sensation due to diabetes. Mediating the client with a sedative (Choice B) does not address the underlying issue of cool feet and may not be necessary. Using a bed cradle (Choice C) to hold the covers off the feet does not directly address the client's need for warmth and comfort.
5. What is the hallmark sign of intussusception?
- A. Mucus-like stools
- B. Currant jelly-like stools
- C. Tarry, black stools
- D. Green, soft stools
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The hallmark sign of intussusception is currant jelly-like stools, which result from the mixture of blood and mucus in the stool due to the sloughing of intestinal mucosa. Mucus-like stools (Choice A) are not typically associated with intussusception. Tarry, black stools (Choice C) are characteristic of gastrointestinal bleeding higher up in the gastrointestinal tract, such as from a peptic ulcer. Green, soft stools (Choice D) are more indicative of rapid transit through the intestines, possibly due to dietary factors or infections such as gastroenteritis.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access