Nursing Elites

1. Based on this strip, what is the interpretation of this rhythm?

• A. Atrial fibrillation.
• B. Ventricular tachycardia.
• C. Normal sinus rhythm.
• D. Second-degree heart block.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Normal sinus rhythm. Normal sinus rhythm is characterized by a regular rhythm, normal P waves, and a consistent PR interval. In this context, the strip likely shows a normal ECG pattern with these characteristics, indicating a healthy heart rhythm. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Atrial fibrillation would show an irregularly irregular rhythm with no discernible P waves. Ventricular tachycardia would display wide QRS complexes and a fast heart rate. Second-degree heart block would exhibit intermittent dropped QRS complexes.

2. A healthcare worker with no known exposure to tuberculosis has received a Mantoux tuberculosis skin test. The nurse's assessment of the test after 62 hours indicates 5mm of erythema without induration. Which is the best initial nursing action?

• A. Review the healthcare worker's history for possible exposure to TB.
• B. Instruct the healthcare worker to return for a repeat test in 1 week.
• C. Refer the healthcare worker to a healthcare provider for isoniazid (INH) therapy.
• D. Document negative results in the healthcare worker's medical record.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A Mantoux tuberculosis skin test without induration is considered negative. In this case, with 5mm of erythema and no induration, the result is negative, indicating no current infection. The best initial nursing action is to document these negative results in the healthcare worker's medical record. Reviewing the history for possible exposure to TB is unnecessary as the test result is negative. Instructing the healthcare worker to return for a repeat test or referring for INH therapy is not warranted when the test is negative.

3. An 82-year-old female client with type 2 diabetes and degenerative arthritis complains to the nurse that she has a hard time cutting her toenails. What should the nurse recommend?

• A. Seek routine nail care with a podiatrist.
• B. Encourage monthly pedicures at a nail salon.
• C. Soak feet for 10 minutes before cutting nails.
• D. Ask a family member to cut toenails.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For an 82-year-old female client with type 2 diabetes and degenerative arthritis, the nurse should recommend seeking routine nail care with a podiatrist. This is crucial to ensure proper and safe toenail care, reducing the risk of injury and infection, which is especially important for diabetic clients. Encouraging monthly pedicures at a nail salon (choice B) may not address the underlying issues related to diabetes and arthritis. Soaking feet for 10 minutes before cutting nails (choice C) may help soften the nails but does not address the difficulty the client faces in cutting them. Asking a family member to cut toenails (choice D) may not guarantee the expertise needed for proper diabetic foot care, which a podiatrist can provide.

4. What is the most effective therapy for maintaining remission of acute lymphoblastic leukemia in a child?

• A. Surgery to remove enlarged lymph nodes
• B. Long-term chemotherapy
• C. Nutritional supplements to enhance blood cell production
• D. Blood transfusions to replace ineffective red cells

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Long-term chemotherapy. In the case of acute lymphoblastic leukemia, the most effective approach for maintaining remission is long-term chemotherapy, particularly with methotrexate, a chemotherapeutic agent. Surgery to remove enlarged lymph nodes (choice A) is not the primary treatment for leukemia. Nutritional supplements (choice C) may be beneficial for overall health but are not the mainstay of leukemia treatment. Blood transfusions (choice D) are used to manage anemia in leukemia but do not address the underlying disease process.

5. A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24h with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackle and bounding central pulses. Vital signs: temperature 101.2°F, Heart rate 96 beats/min, Respirations 24 breaths/min, and Blood pressure 160/90 mmHg. Which interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Review the last administration of IV pain medication.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen.
• C. Decrease IV fluids to keep the vein open (KVO) rate.
• D. Calculate total intake and output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease IV fluids to the keep vein open (KVO) rate. The client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, headache, elevated CVP, crackles, bounding pulses, and increased blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids will help prevent further fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the fluid balance issue is the priority. Administering a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with the headache but does not address the underlying fluid overload. Calculating total intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the immediate issue of fluid overload and its associated symptoms.

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