HESI LPN
Medical Surgical HESI
1. A client with chronic heart failure is being discharged with a new prescription for furosemide. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- B. Restrict your fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
- C. Avoid salt substitutes containing potassium.
- D. Weigh yourself once a week.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss due to increased urinary excretion. Potassium-rich foods can help prevent hypokalemia, a potential side effect of furosemide. Restricting fluid intake (choice B) may not be suitable for all patients with heart failure, and a general restriction of 1 liter per day is not typically recommended. Avoiding salt substitutes containing potassium (choice C) is not a priority teaching point in this scenario. Weighing oneself once a week (choice D) is important for monitoring fluid status, but increasing potassium-rich foods is more directly related to the potential side effects of furosemide.
2. The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client with heart failure. Which instruction should be included to prevent fluid overload?
- A. Weigh yourself daily and report a gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours
- B. Increase fluid intake to stay hydrated
- C. Consume a high-sodium diet to retain fluids
- D. Engage in vigorous exercise daily
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Weigh yourself daily and report a gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours.' Daily weight monitoring is crucial for detecting fluid retention early in clients with heart failure. Reporting a gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours can indicate fluid overload, prompting timely intervention. Choice B is incorrect because increasing fluid intake can exacerbate fluid overload in clients with heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as a high-sodium diet can worsen fluid retention. Choice D is incorrect as vigorous exercise can strain the heart and worsen heart failure symptoms.
3. A client with Parkinson's disease is experiencing difficulty swallowing. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent aspiration?
- A. Encourage the client to eat quickly.
- B. Provide a straw for liquids.
- C. Place the client in an upright position during meals.
- D. Offer thin liquids.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Placing the client in an upright position during meals is the correct intervention to prevent aspiration in a client with Parkinson's disease. This position helps facilitate swallowing and reduces the risk of aspiration. Choice A is incorrect because encouraging the client to eat quickly can increase the risk of choking and aspiration. Choice B is not the best option as straws may not prevent aspiration effectively. Choice D is incorrect as thin liquids can actually increase the risk of aspiration in individuals with swallowing difficulties.
4. In the change of shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?
- A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
- B. Intact skin with non-blanchable redness.
- C. Full-thickness tissue loss with visible fat.
- D. Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.' Stage 2 pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss and typically appear as shallow open ulcers with a red-pink wound bed. Choice B describes a stage 1 ulcer, where the skin is intact but shows non-blanchable redness. Choice C describes a stage 3 ulcer, with full-thickness tissue loss exposing fat. Choice D is characteristic of a stage 4 ulcer, where there is full-thickness tissue loss exposing bone, tendon, or muscle. Therefore, option A best fits the description of a stage 2 pressure ulcer.
5. A client with liver cirrhosis is at risk for developing hepatic encephalopathy. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Kussmaul respirations
- B. Asterixis (flapping tremor)
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Asterixis, also known as a flapping tremor, is a common sign of hepatic encephalopathy, indicating neurological dysfunction due to liver failure. Kussmaul respirations (option A) are associated with metabolic acidosis, which is not a typical manifestation of hepatic encephalopathy. Bradycardia (option C) and hypertension (option D) are not typically associated with hepatic encephalopathy; in fact, hepatic encephalopathy is more commonly associated with alterations in mental status, neuromuscular abnormalities, and changes in behavior.
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