Nursing Elites

1. A middle-aged man who has a 35-year smoking history presents to the emergency department confused and short of breath. Before starting oxygen, these baseline arterial blood gases (ABGs) are obtained: pH=7.25, pCO2=50 mmHg, HCO3=30 mEq/L. These findings indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing which acid-base imbalance?

• A. Metabolic acidosis.
• B. Respiratory acidosis.
• C. Metabolic alkalosis.
• D. Respiratory alkalosis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The ABG results show a low pH (acidosis) and increased pCO2, indicating respiratory acidosis. In respiratory acidosis, the lungs cannot remove enough CO2, leading to its accumulation in the blood. This often occurs in conditions like COPD and is consistent with the patient's smoking history. Metabolic acidosis (choice A) is characterized by low pH and low HCO3 levels. Metabolic alkalosis (choice C) is marked by high pH and high HCO3 levels. Respiratory alkalosis (choice D) presents with high pH and low pCO2.

2. A male client tells the nurse that he is experiencing burning on urination, and assessment reveals that he had sexual intercourse four days ago with a woman he casually met. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Observe the perineal area for a chancroid-like lesion.
• B. Obtain a specimen of urethral drainage for culture.
• C. Assess for perineal itching, erythema, and excoriation.
• D. Identify all sexual partners in the last four days.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to obtain a specimen of urethral drainage for culture. This procedure can help diagnose the cause of burning on urination, which could be indicative of a sexually transmitted infection. Option A, observing for a chancroid-like lesion, may not be the most immediate or relevant action in this case. Option C, assessing for perineal itching, erythema, and excoriation, is important but obtaining a culture specimen would provide more specific diagnostic information. Option D, identifying all sexual partners, is relevant for contact tracing but obtaining a culture specimen is the priority to determine the current infection status.

3. A male client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter. The client asks the nurse why he keeps getting these massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to the client's question?

• A. Bone marrow suppression of white blood cells causes insufficient cells to phagocytize organisms.
• B. Exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents overburdens the immune system until it fails.
• C. The humoral immune response lacks B cells that form antibodies and opportunistic infections result.
• D. Inadequate numbers of T lymphocytes are available to initiate cellular immunity and macrophages.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: With a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter, the client's immune system is severely compromised, leading to opportunistic infections.

4. The family of a newly admitted child with cystic fibrosis is educated by the nurse that the treatment will be centered on what therapy?

• A. Chest physiotherapy
• B. Mucus-drying agents
• C. Prevention of diarrhea
• D. Insulin therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest physiotherapy. In cystic fibrosis, chest physiotherapy and aerosol medications are fundamental components of treatment to help clear mucus from the lungs, reduce the risk of infections, and improve breathing. Mucus-drying agents (Choice B) are not typically used in the treatment of cystic fibrosis. Prevention of diarrhea (Choice C) is not a primary focus in the treatment of cystic fibrosis. Insulin therapy (Choice D) is not relevant to cystic fibrosis, as it is a treatment for diabetes.

5. A client with Parkinson's disease is experiencing difficulty swallowing. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent aspiration?

• A. Encourage the client to eat quickly.
• B. Provide a straw for liquids.
• C. Place the client in an upright position during meals.
• D. Offer thin liquids.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing the client in an upright position during meals is the correct intervention to prevent aspiration in a client with Parkinson's disease. This position helps facilitate swallowing and reduces the risk of aspiration. Choice A is incorrect because encouraging the client to eat quickly can increase the risk of choking and aspiration. Choice B is not the best option as straws may not prevent aspiration effectively. Choice D is incorrect as thin liquids can actually increase the risk of aspiration in individuals with swallowing difficulties.

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