HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI Quizlet
1. A client with a spinal cord injury at the level of T1 is at risk for autonomic dysreflexia. Which symptom is indicative of this condition?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Severe headache
- D. Flushed skin below the level of injury
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a condition commonly seen in clients with spinal cord injuries at T6 or above. It is characterized by a sudden onset of severe hypertension, pounding headache, profuse sweating, nasal congestion, and flushing of the skin above the level of injury. The severe headache is a key symptom resulting from uncontrolled hypertension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as autonomic dysreflexia typically presents with hypertension, not hypotension, tachycardia, or flushed skin below the level of injury.
2. In the change of shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?
- A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
- B. Intact skin with non-blanchable redness.
- C. Full-thickness tissue loss with visible fat.
- D. Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.' Stage 2 pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss and typically appear as shallow open ulcers with a red-pink wound bed. Choice B describes a stage 1 ulcer, where the skin is intact but shows non-blanchable redness. Choice C describes a stage 3 ulcer, with full-thickness tissue loss exposing fat. Choice D is characteristic of a stage 4 ulcer, where there is full-thickness tissue loss exposing bone, tendon, or muscle. Therefore, option A best fits the description of a stage 2 pressure ulcer.
3. A client with a history of asthma and bronchitis arrives at the clinic with shortness of breath, productive cough with thickening mucus, and the inability to walk up a flight of stairs without experiencing breathlessness. Which action is most important for the nurse to instruct the client about self-care?
- A. Increase the daily intake of oral fluids to liquefy secretions
- B. Avoid crowded enclosed areas to reduce pathogen exposure
- C. Call the clinic if undesirable side effects of medications occur
- D. Teach anxiety reduction methods for feelings of suffocation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Increasing fluid intake is crucial as it helps to thin mucus secretions, making them easier to expectorate. This can alleviate the client's symptoms of shortness of breath and productive cough. Option B is not the most important action in this scenario, as it does not directly address the client's respiratory distress. Option C, while important, focuses on medication side effects rather than addressing the immediate breathing difficulties. Option D, teaching anxiety reduction methods, is not the priority when the client's main concern is respiratory distress.
4. A client is admitted to the emergency department with symptoms of arm numbness, chest pain, and nausea/vomiting. The examining healthcare provider believes that the client has experienced an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) within the past three hours and would like to initiate tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) therapy. Which client history findings contraindicate the use of tPA?
- A. Treats hypoglycemia with an oral hypoglycemic agent.
- B. Had a cerebrovascular hemorrhage 2 months ago.
- C. Current age 65, father died of MI at 55.
- D. Report of being intolerant of medication that contains aspirin.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A history of cerebrovascular hemorrhage is a contraindication for tPA therapy due to the risk of bleeding. Choice A is incorrect because treating hypoglycemia with an oral hypoglycemic agent is not a contraindication for tPA therapy. Choice C is incorrect as age and family history of MI do not contraindicate the use of tPA. Choice D is incorrect as being intolerant of medication containing aspirin is not a contraindication for tPA therapy.
5. On the first postoperative day, the nurse finds an older male client disoriented and trying to climb over the bed railing. Previously, he was oriented to person, place, and time on admission. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer a sedative.
- B. Determine the client’s blood pressure.
- C. Apply soft restraints.
- D. Call for assistance.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention the nurse should implement first is to determine the client’s blood pressure. Assessing the blood pressure is crucial in this situation to rule out physiological causes like hypotension leading to the client's disorientation. Administering a sedative (Choice A) without understanding the underlying cause may worsen the situation. Applying soft restraints (Choice C) should not be the initial action and can be considered later if necessary. Calling for assistance (Choice D) may be needed eventually, but assessing the client's blood pressure takes precedence to address the immediate concern.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access