Nursing Elites

1. A client with a spinal cord injury at the level of T1 is at risk for autonomic dysreflexia. Which symptom is indicative of this condition?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Severe headache
• D. Flushed skin below the level of injury

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a condition commonly seen in clients with spinal cord injuries at T6 or above. It is characterized by a sudden onset of severe hypertension, pounding headache, profuse sweating, nasal congestion, and flushing of the skin above the level of injury. The severe headache is a key symptom resulting from uncontrolled hypertension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as autonomic dysreflexia typically presents with hypertension, not hypotension, tachycardia, or flushed skin below the level of injury.

2. What is the most common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta?

• A. Clubbing of the digits
• B. Upper extremity hypertension
• C. Pedal edema and portal congestion
• D. Loud systolic ejection murmur

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Upper extremity hypertension. Coarctation of the aorta leads to increased blood pressure in the upper extremities. The pressure in the arms is typically 20 mm Hg higher than in the legs. Choice A, clubbing of the digits, is not a common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta. Choice C, pedal edema, and portal congestion are more suggestive of conditions like heart failure rather than coarctation of the aorta. Choice D, loud systolic ejection murmur, can be heard in conditions like aortic stenosis, but it is not the most common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta.

3. A client with chronic heart failure is being discharged with a new prescription for furosemide. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• B. Restrict your fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
• C. Avoid salt substitutes containing potassium.
• D. Weigh yourself once a week.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss due to increased urinary excretion. Potassium-rich foods can help prevent hypokalemia, a potential side effect of furosemide. Restricting fluid intake (choice B) may not be suitable for all patients with heart failure, and a general restriction of 1 liter per day is not typically recommended. Avoiding salt substitutes containing potassium (choice C) is not a priority teaching point in this scenario. Weighing oneself once a week (choice D) is important for monitoring fluid status, but increasing potassium-rich foods is more directly related to the potential side effects of furosemide.

4. Laboratory findings indicate that a client’s serum potassium level is 2.5 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer potassium supplements orally.
• B. Increase the client's dietary potassium intake.
• C. Inform the healthcare provider of the need for potassium replacement.
• D. Monitor the client's ECG continuously.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 2.5 mEq/L is critically low, indicating severe hypokalemia. In this situation, it is essential for the nurse to inform the healthcare provider promptly about the need for potassium replacement. Administering potassium supplements orally or increasing dietary potassium intake is not appropriate in cases of critically low potassium levels as immediate and precise replacement is necessary. Monitoring the client's ECG continuously is important in severe cases of hypokalemia, but the priority action should be to inform the healthcare provider for further management and treatment.

5. While changing the dressing of a client with a leg ulcer, the nurse observes a red, tender, and swollen wound at the site of the lesion. Before reporting this finding to the healthcare provider, the nurse should note which of the client’s laboratory values?

• A. Neutrophil count.
• B. Hematocrit.
• C. Blood pH.
• D. Serum potassium and sodium.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neutrophil count. Neutrophil count helps assess for infection, which is indicated by the redness, tenderness, and swelling of the wound. Elevated neutrophil count is a common sign of bacterial infection. Hematocrit (choice B) measures the proportion of blood volume that is occupied by red blood cells and is not directly related to wound infection. Blood pH (choice C) and serum potassium and sodium (choice D) are important for assessing acid-base balance and electrolyte levels but are not the primary indicators of wound infection.

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