a client with a spinal cord injury at the level of t1 is at risk for autonomic dysreflexia which symptom is indicative of this condition
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Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI Quizlet

1. A client with a spinal cord injury at the level of T1 is at risk for autonomic dysreflexia. Which symptom is indicative of this condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a condition commonly seen in clients with spinal cord injuries at T6 or above. It is characterized by a sudden onset of severe hypertension, pounding headache, profuse sweating, nasal congestion, and flushing of the skin above the level of injury. The severe headache is a key symptom resulting from uncontrolled hypertension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as autonomic dysreflexia typically presents with hypertension, not hypotension, tachycardia, or flushed skin below the level of injury.

2. An adult client is admitted with AIDS and oral candidiasis manifested by several painful mouth ulcers. The nurse delegates oral care to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) and discusses how to assist the client. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Provide a soft bristle brush for the client to use during oral care.' Providing a soft bristle brush helps reduce trauma to the oral mucosa and assists in oral care. Choice A is incorrect because oral care can be safely delegated to UAPs. Choice C is wrong as alcohol-based mouthwash can further irritate the ulcers. Choice D is incorrect as applying an antifungal cream directly to the mouth ulcers is not the standard treatment for oral candidiasis.

3. The nurse is triaging clients who have been injured during a tornado. Which client requires immediate action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The middle-aged female with a broken humerus who is unable to follow commands and is crying requires immediate action. These symptoms indicate a possible head injury or severe emotional distress that need urgent attention. Choice A is not as urgent since a minor laceration can be addressed after more critical cases. Choice B, although having a dislocated shoulder, is stable, as the client is calm. Choice D presents with minor injuries that can wait while more critical cases are addressed.

4. A child has developed a diaper rash, and the parents are using zinc oxide to treat it. What does the nurse suggest to aid in the removal of the zinc oxide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To completely remove ointment, especially zinc oxide, mineral oil should be used. Mineral oil helps in gently breaking down and lifting the ointment without causing irritation. Mild soap and water (Choice A) may not be effective in completely removing zinc oxide. A cotton ball (Choice B) may not provide the necessary lubrication to aid in the removal process. Alcohol swabs (Choice D) can be harsh on the skin and are not recommended for this purpose.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. What do these symptoms indicate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia are classic signs of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which occurs due to a combination of hyperglycemia and ketone production. Hypoglycemia (Choice A) is characterized by low blood sugar levels, leading to symptoms like confusion, shakiness, and sweating, which are different from the symptoms described in the scenario. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS) (Choice C) typically presents with severe hyperglycemia, dehydration, and altered mental status, rather than the triad of symptoms mentioned. Insulin shock (Choice D) refers to a severe hypoglycemic reaction due to excessive insulin, manifesting with confusion, sweating, and rapid heartbeat, not the symptoms seen in the client with diabetes mellitus described in this scenario.

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