Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is providing teaching to an immobilized patient with impaired skin integrity about diet. Which diet will the healthcare provider recommend?

• A. High protein, high calorie
• B. High carbohydrate, low fat
• C. High vitamin A, high vitamin E
• D. Fluid restricted, bland

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: High protein, high calorie. An immobilized patient with impaired skin integrity requires a diet high in protein and calories to repair injured tissue and rebuild depleted protein stores. This helps in promoting wound healing and preventing further breakdown of the skin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while vitamins and minerals are essential for overall health, in this case, the priority is on providing sufficient protein and calories to support healing and recovery in an immobilized patient with impaired skin integrity.

2. During a neurological assessment, a healthcare provider is evaluating a client's balance. Which of the following examinations should the provider use for this purpose?

• A. Romberg test
• B. Deep tendon reflexes
• C. Mini-Mental State Examination
• D. Babinski reflex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Romberg test is utilized to assess the client's balance and proprioception by having them stand with their eyes closed. This test helps evaluate sensory ataxia, a condition where an individual's balance is affected due to impaired sensory input. Deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) are assessed by tapping a tendon with a reflex hammer to evaluate the integrity of the spinal cord and peripheral nerves; this is not directly related to balance assessment. The Mini-Mental State Examination (Choice C) is a cognitive screening tool used to assess cognitive impairment or dementia, not balance. The Babinski reflex (Choice D) is elicited by stroking the sole of the foot to assess neurologic function, particularly in the corticospinal tract, and is not specific to balance evaluation.

3. While caring for a client who begins to experience a generalized seizure while standing in her room, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Place a pad under the client’s head
• B. Hold the client’s limbs tightly to prevent injury
• C. Lift the client into bed with the help of other staff members
• D. Insert a bite block into the client’s mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a seizure, the priority is to protect the client's head and ensure their safety. The nurse should guide the client to the ground if possible and place a soft pad or a folded cloth under the head to prevent injury. Restraining the client's limbs can result in injury and should be avoided. Lifting the client can also lead to injuries during a seizure. Inserting a bite block is contraindicated as it can cause damage to the teeth, oral tissues, and obstruct the airway. Therefore, the correct action is to place a pad under the client's head to protect them during the seizure.

4. A nurse is talking with an adolescent who is having difficulty dealing with several issues. Which of the following issues should the nurse identify as the priority?

• A. “I kind of like this boy in my class, but he doesn’t like me back.”
• B. “I want to hang out with the kids in the science club, but the jocks pick on them.”
• C. “I am so fat, I skip meals to try to lose weight.”
• D. “My dad wants me to be a lawyer like him, but I just want to dance.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Skipping meals to lose weight may indicate an eating disorder or significant distress, which can have serious health implications. This behavior raises concerns about the adolescent's physical and mental well-being. The nurse should prioritize addressing potential eating disorders and body image issues in this situation. Choices A, B, and D, while important, do not pose an immediate risk to the adolescent's health or well-being compared to the potential consequences of disordered eating behavior.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Mild nausea
• B. Hair loss
• C. Increased fatigue
• D. Fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C) in a client undergoing chemotherapy is a significant finding that may indicate an underlying infection, which can be life-threatening due to the client's compromised immune system. Prompt reporting and intervention are crucial to prevent complications. Mild nausea, hair loss, and increased fatigue are common side effects of chemotherapy and are expected findings that do not typically require immediate reporting unless they are severe or significantly impacting the client's well-being. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should prioritize reporting the fever over the other options.

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