Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has been prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K.
• B. I will take my medication at the same time every day.
• C. I will use a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding.
• D. I can take aspirin if I have a headache.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'I can take aspirin if I have a headache.' This statement indicates a need for further teaching because aspirin can increase the risk of bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Clients on warfarin therapy should avoid taking aspirin or other medications that increase the risk of bleeding. Choices A, B, and C are correct statements that show understanding of warfarin therapy, such as the importance of avoiding foods high in vitamin K, taking medication consistently, and using a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding.

2. A client receives the influenza vaccine in a clinic. Within 15 minutes after the immunization, the client complains of itchy and watery eyes, increased anxiety, and difficulty breathing. What should be the first action in the sequence of care for this client?

• A. Maintain the airway
• B. Administer epinephrine 1:1000 as ordered
• C. Monitor for hypotension with shock
• D. Administer diphenhydramine as ordered

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction, a severe allergic response. The priority action in an anaphylactic reaction is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine helps counteract the severe allergic response, improves breathing difficulties, and maintains airway and circulation. Administering epinephrine takes precedence to stabilize the client's condition. Options A, C, and D may be necessary in the management of anaphylaxis, but the immediate priority is to administer epinephrine to address the life-threatening symptoms.

3. During passive range of motion (ROM) and splinting, the absence of which finding will indicate goal achievement for these interventions?

• A. Atelectasis
• B. Renal calculi
• C. Pressure ulcers
• D. Joint contractures

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Joint contractures. When a healthcare provider performs passive ROM and splinting on a patient, the goal is to prevent joint contractures. Joint contractures result from immobility and can lead to permanent stiffness and decreased range of motion. Atelectasis (choice A) is a condition where there is a complete or partial collapse of the lung, commonly due to immobility, but not directly related to passive ROM or splinting. Renal calculi (choice B) are kidney stones and are not typically associated with ROM exercises. Pressure ulcers (choice C) result from prolonged pressure on the skin and are prevented by repositioning the patient, not specifically addressed by ROM and splinting exercises.

4. A patient with stomatitis is receiving oral care education from a nurse. Which instructions will the nurse provide?

• A. Avoid commercial mouthwashes.
• B. Avoid normal saline rinses.
• C. Brush with a hard toothbrush.
• D. Brush with an alcohol-based toothpaste.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a patient with stomatitis is to avoid commercial mouthwashes. Commercial mouthwashes often contain alcohol and other ingredients that can irritate the already inflamed oral mucosa in patients with stomatitis. Avoiding commercial mouthwashes helps prevent further irritation and discomfort. Choice B is incorrect because normal saline rinses are gentle and can help soothe the oral mucosa in patients with stomatitis. Choice C is incorrect because a soft toothbrush should be used to prevent further irritation or injury to the gums. Choice D is incorrect because an alcohol-based toothpaste can be too harsh and drying for patients with stomatitis.

5. A client is to receive cimetidine (Tagamet) 300 mg q6h IVP. The preparation arrives from the pharmacy diluted in 50 ml of 0.9% NaCl. The LPN plans to administer the IVPB dose over 20 minutes. For how many ml/hr should the infusion pump be set to deliver the secondary infusion?

• A. 150
• B. 50
• C. 100
• D. 75

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Setting the infusion pump to 150 ml/hr ensures the correct administration rate of the IVPB dose over 20 minutes. To calculate the infusion rate, consider that the total volume to be infused is 50 ml over 20 minutes. To convert this to ml/hr, the calculation is (50 ml / 20 minutes) x 60 minutes/hr = 150 ml/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation for the infusion rate needed to deliver the secondary infusion over the specified time.

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