HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank
1. A client with pneumonia is receiving antibiotic therapy. Which finding indicates that the treatment is effective?
- A. Decreased white blood cell count
- B. Decreased respiratory rate
- C. Increased breath sounds
- D. Increased heart rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased breath sounds. When a client with pneumonia is receiving antibiotic therapy, increased breath sounds indicate that the lungs are clearing and the pneumonia is resolving. This improvement in breath sounds suggests that the antibiotics are effectively treating the infection. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a decreased white blood cell count, decreased respiratory rate, and increased heart rate are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of antibiotic therapy in treating pneumonia. While these parameters may change in response to treatment, they do not directly reflect the resolution of the pneumonia infection.
2. A nurse in a primary care clinic is assessing a client who has a history of herpes zoster. Which of the following findings suggests that the client has postherpetic neuralgia?
- A. Linear clusters of vesicles on the right shoulder.
- B. Purulent drainage from both eyes.
- C. Decreased white blood cell count.
- D. Report of continued pain following resolution of the rash.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Report of continued pain following resolution of the rash. Postherpetic neuralgia is a complication of herpes zoster characterized by persistent pain that continues even after the rash has resolved. This pain can be severe and debilitating, affecting the quality of life of the individual. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because linear clusters of vesicles on the right shoulder would suggest an active herpes zoster outbreak, purulent drainage from both eyes would indicate an eye infection unrelated to postherpetic neuralgia, and a decreased white blood cell count is not typically associated with postherpetic neuralgia.
3. An 18-year-old client is admitted to the intensive care unit from the emergency room following a diving accident. The injury is suspected to be at the level of the 2nd cervical vertebra. The nurse's priority assessment should be
- A. Response to stimuli
- B. Bladder control
- C. Respiratory function
- D. Muscle strength
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Injuries at the level of the 2nd cervical vertebra can affect the phrenic nerve, leading to potential impairment of respiratory function. Assessing respiratory function is crucial as compromised breathing can quickly escalate to life-threatening situations. While response to stimuli is important, ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence due to the immediate threat to life. Bladder control may be affected by spinal cord injuries at higher levels, but it is not the priority in this scenario. Muscle strength is a potential consequence of cervical spinal cord injury, but assessing respiratory function is more critical in the acute phase.
4. A nurse in an outpatient clinic is caring for a client who has a new prescription for an antihypertensive medication. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give the client?
- A. “Get up and change positions slowly.”
- B. “Avoid eating aged cheese and smoked meat.”
- C. “Report any unusual bruising or bleeding to the doctor immediately.”
- D. “Eat the same amount of foods that contain vitamin K every day.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to give the client who is starting on antihypertensive medication is to 'Get up and change positions slowly.' Antihypertensive medications can cause orthostatic hypotension, a drop in blood pressure when changing positions, so changing positions slowly helps prevent this adverse effect. Choice B about avoiding aged cheese and smoked meat is more relevant for clients taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) due to potential interactions. Choice C regarding reporting unusual bruising or bleeding is more applicable for clients on anticoagulants. Choice D about consuming consistent amounts of vitamin K-containing foods daily is important for clients taking warfarin, not antihypertensive medications.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer multiple medications to a client who has an enteral feeding tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Dissolve each medication in 5 mL of sterile water.
- B. Draw up each medication separately in the syringe.
- C. Push the syringe plunger gently if feeling resistance.
- D. Flush the tube with 15 mL of sterile water.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering multiple medications to a client with an enteral feeding tube is to flush the tube with 15-30 mL of sterile water before and between medications, and 30-60 mL after the last medication. This helps prevent clogging and ensures each medication is delivered effectively. Choice A is incorrect as medications should not be dissolved in water for administration through an enteral feeding tube. Choice B is incorrect because each medication should be drawn up and administered separately to prevent any potential interactions. Choice C is incorrect as resistance while pushing the plunger may indicate a problem that needs to be addressed before continuing with the administration.
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