HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Questions
1. The nurse is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Increased urine output
- C. Low blood pressure
- D. Thirst
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased urine output. In diabetes insipidus, there is a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to the excretion of large amounts of dilute urine. Reporting increased urine output is crucial as it is a hallmark sign of diabetes insipidus. Weight gain (choice A) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus; instead, clients may experience weight loss due to fluid loss. Low blood pressure (choice C) can be a complication of diabetes insipidus due to dehydration from excessive urination, but the priority finding to report is the increased urine output. Thirst (choice D) is a common symptom of diabetes insipidus due to the body's attempt to compensate for fluid loss, but it is not the most critical finding to report.
2. The healthcare provider is caring for a patient who has multiple ticks on lower legs and body. What should the healthcare provider do to rid the patient of ticks?
- A. Use blunt tweezers and pull upward with steady pressure.
- B. Burn the ticks with a match or a small lighter.
- C. Allow the ticks to drop off by themselves.
- D. Apply miconazole and cover with plastic.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct answer: When removing ticks, it is essential to use blunt tweezers to grasp the tick as close to the head as possible and pull upward with even, steady pressure to remove the entire tick. Option B is incorrect because burning ticks can increase the risk of infection and is not recommended. Option C is incorrect as waiting for ticks to drop off by themselves prolongs potential exposure to tick-borne diseases. Option D is incorrect as miconazole is an antifungal medication and not used for tick removal.
3. Following surgery on the neck, the client asks the LPN why the head of the bed is up so high. The LPN should tell the client that the high-Fowler position is preferred for what reason?
- A. To reduce strain on the incision
- B. To promote drainage of the wound
- C. To provide stimulation for the client
- D. To reduce edema at the operative site
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The high-Fowler position is preferred after neck surgery to reduce edema at the operative site. Elevating the head of the bed promotes venous return and drainage, aiding in decreasing swelling and fluid accumulation, which helps reduce edema at the operative site. Choice A is incorrect as the main purpose is not solely about reducing strain on the incision. Choice B is incorrect because while drainage may occur, it is not the primary reason for maintaining the high-Fowler position. Choice C is incorrect as providing stimulation is not the primary rationale for positioning the client in high-Fowler.
4. Which statement by the nurse indicates culturally responsive care for a client following Islamic practices?
- A. “I will make sure the menu includes halal options.”
- B. “I will ask the client if they want to schedule prayer times during the day.”
- C. “I will avoid discussing care when the client’s family is around.”
- D. “I will make sure daily communion is available for this client.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Asking the client if they want to schedule prayer times during the day demonstrates respect and consideration for Islamic practices. Providing halal options (choice A) is important for dietary requirements in Islam, but it may not address the client's spiritual needs. Avoiding discussing care in front of the client's family (choice C) is not directly linked to Islamic practices and may not necessarily enhance cultural responsiveness. Offering daily communion (choice D) is associated with Christian religious practices, not Islamic practices, and may not meet the client's religious needs.
5. Following change-of-shift report on an orthopedic unit, which client should the nurse see first?
- A. 16-year-old who had an open reduction of a fractured wrist 10 hours ago
- B. 20-year-old in skeletal traction for 2 weeks since a motorcycle accident
- C. 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago
- D. 75-year-old who is in skin traction prior to planned hip pinning surgery
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago should be seen first due to the potential for immediate post-operative complications. This patient is in the immediate postoperative period and requires close monitoring for any signs of complications such as bleeding, infection, or impaired circulation. The other patients are relatively stable compared to the patient who just had surgery and therefore can wait for assessment and care without immediate risk. The 16-year-old had surgery ten hours ago, which is longer than the 72-year-old and is at a lower risk for immediate complications. The 20-year-old in skeletal traction for two weeks is stable in his current condition. The 75-year-old in skin traction before planned surgery does not require immediate attention as the surgery has not yet taken place.
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