Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Low blood pressure
• D. Thirst

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased urine output. In diabetes insipidus, there is a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to the excretion of large amounts of dilute urine. Reporting increased urine output is crucial as it is a hallmark sign of diabetes insipidus. Weight gain (choice A) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus; instead, clients may experience weight loss due to fluid loss. Low blood pressure (choice C) can be a complication of diabetes insipidus due to dehydration from excessive urination, but the priority finding to report is the increased urine output. Thirst (choice D) is a common symptom of diabetes insipidus due to the body's attempt to compensate for fluid loss, but it is not the most critical finding to report.

2. The pediatric clinic nurse examines a toddler with a tentative diagnosis of neuroblastoma. Findings observed by the nurse that are associated with this problem include which of these?

• A. Lymphedema and nerve palsy
• B. Hearing loss and ataxia
• C. Headaches and vomiting
• D. Abdominal mass and weakness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Neuroblastoma, a common solid tumor in children, often presents with symptoms related to the mass effect it causes. Abdominal mass and weakness are classic signs of neuroblastoma due to the tumor originating in the adrenal glands near the kidneys and potentially compressing nearby structures. Lymphedema and nerve palsy (Choice A) are not typically associated with neuroblastoma. Hearing loss and ataxia (Choice B) are more common in conditions affecting the central nervous system rather than neuroblastoma. Headaches and vomiting (Choice C) are nonspecific symptoms and are less commonly linked to neuroblastoma compared to the characteristic abdominal findings.

3. A healthcare professional is admitting a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the healthcare professional plan to initiate?

• A. Contact
• B. Droplet
• C. Airborne
• D. Protective environment

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tuberculosis is transmitted through airborne particles, so airborne precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of the disease. Airborne precautions (Choice C) involve measures such as negative pressure rooms and N95 respirators to prevent the transmission of infectious agents that remain infectious over long distances when suspended in the air. Contact precautions (Choice A) are used for diseases that spread through direct contact with the patient or their environment. Droplet precautions (Choice B) are for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, typically over short distances. Protective environment (Choice D) is used for clients who are immunocompromised to protect them from environmental pathogens, not for diseases like tuberculosis that spread through the air.

4. The patient is being taught about flossing and oral hygiene. What instruction will the nurse include in the teaching session?

• A. Using waxed floss helps prevent bleeding
• B. Flossing removes plaque and tartar from the teeth
• C. Flossing at least 3 times a day is beneficial
• D. Applying toothpaste before flossing is harmful

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Flossing is essential for removing plaque and tartar between teeth, contributing to better oral hygiene. Choice A is not entirely accurate as waxed floss may not solely prevent bleeding. Flossing three times a day, as mentioned in choice C, can be excessive and unnecessary, while choice D is incorrect as applying toothpaste before flossing is not harmful but might not provide additional benefits.

5. While caring for a client receiving parenteral fluid therapy via a peripheral IV catheter, after which of the following observations should the nurse remove the IV catheter?

• A. Swelling and coolness are observed at the IV site.
• B. The client reports mild discomfort at the insertion site.
• C. The infusion rate is slower than expected.
• D. The IV catheter is no longer needed for treatment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Swelling and coolness at the IV site can indicate complications such as infiltration, which can lead to tissue damage or fluid leakage into the surrounding tissues. Prompt removal of the IV catheter is essential to prevent further complications. The client reporting mild discomfort at the insertion site is common during IV therapy and does not necessarily warrant catheter removal unless there are signs of infiltration. A slower than expected infusion rate may not always necessitate IV catheter removal; the nurse should troubleshoot potential causes such as kinks in the tubing or pump malfunctions first. Just because the IV catheter is no longer needed for treatment does not automatically mean it should be removed; proper assessment and monitoring for complications are still essential.

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