Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is providing care for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is receiving NPH insulin. The nurse notices that the client's evening glucose levels are consistently above 260 mg/dl. What does this indicate?

• A. States that her feet are constantly cold and feel numb
• B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
• C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dl
• D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast

Correct answer: C

Rationale: High evening glucose levels suggest that the current insulin dosage may be inadequate to control the client's blood sugar levels effectively. This indicates poor glycemic control and the need for a possible adjustment in the insulin regimen. Option A describes symptoms of peripheral neuropathy, which are not directly related to the elevated glucose levels but may be a long-term complication of diabetes. Option B describes a wound infection, which is not directly related to the client's high glucose levels. Option D mentions morning nausea, which could be due to various causes and is not directly related to the high evening glucose levels.

2. The nurse is teaching a client with diabetes mellitus how to differentiate between hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis. What statement indicates to the nurse that the client has an understanding of this condition?

• A. Glucose should be taken if I have a fruity breath odor.
• B. Glucose should be taken if I am urinating more than usual.
• C. Glucose should be taken if I have blurred vision.
• D. Glucose should be taken if I develop shakiness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Shakiness is a symptom of hypoglycemia, which is low blood sugar. Taking glucose can help raise blood sugar levels quickly in this situation. Fruity breath odor and excessive urination are signs of ketoacidosis, a complication of diabetes involving high levels of ketones in the blood. Blurred vision can be a symptom of high blood sugar, but it is not specific to hypoglycemia.

3. The UAP is caring for a male resident of a long-term care facility who has an external urinary catheter. Which finding should the PN instruct the UAP to report immediately?

• A. Swollen and discolored penile shaft
• B. Prepuce extends over the head of the penis
• C. Leaking urine around the top of the catheter
• D. Moist and excoriated perineal skin folds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Swollen and discolored penile shaft. Swelling and discoloration of the penile shaft may indicate an infection or other complications requiring immediate attention. Prompt reporting allows for timely intervention to prevent further harm to the client. Choice B is incorrect because the prepuce extending over the head of the penis is not an urgent issue. Choice C, leaking urine around the catheter, may require intervention but is not as urgent as the swelling and discoloration described in choice A. Choice D, moist and excoriated perineal skin folds, also needs attention but is not as concerning as the potential complications indicated by the findings in choice A.

4. During a blood transfusion, which sign or symptom should prompt the healthcare provider to immediately stop the transfusion?

• A. Slight increase in blood pressure
• B. Elevated temperature and chills
• C. Mild nausea
• D. Slight headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Elevated temperature and chills. These symptoms are indicative of a transfusion reaction, which can be severe and life-threatening. It is crucial to stop the transfusion immediately and notify the healthcare provider for further assessment and management. Elevated temperature and chills are classic signs of a transfusion reaction, specifically indicating a possible febrile non-hemolytic reaction. Choice A, a slight increase in blood pressure, is not typically a reason to stop a transfusion unless it is a significant sudden increase. Mild nausea (Choice C) and a slight headache (Choice D) are common side effects of blood transfusions and are not primary indicators of a transfusion reaction that require immediate cessation of the transfusion.

5. A client on bedrest refuses to wear the prescribed pneumatic compression devices after surgery. Which action should the PN implement in response to the client's refusal?

• A. Emphasize the importance of active foot flexion
• B. Check the surgical dressing
• C. Complete an incident report
• D. Explain the use of an incentive spirometer every 2 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the PN to implement when a client refuses pneumatic compression devices is to emphasize the importance of active foot flexion. Active foot flexion exercises can help prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in clients who are not using the compression devices. Encouraging some form of circulation-promoting activity is crucial to reduce the risks associated with immobility. Checking the surgical dressing (Choice B) is important but not the immediate action to address the refusal of compression devices. Completing an incident report (Choice C) is not necessary in this situation as the client's refusal is not an incident. Explaining the use of an incentive spirometer (Choice D) is not directly related to addressing the refusal of compression devices for DVT prevention.

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