which condition is most commonly associated with bulls eye rash
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HESI LPN

HESI PN Exit Exam 2024

1. Which condition is most commonly associated with a "bull's eye" rash?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lyme disease. The "bull's eye" rash, or erythema migrans, is a hallmark of early Lyme disease, caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi. Choice B, Rocky Mountain spotted fever, presents with a different type of rash. Choice C, Syphilis, typically presents with a painless ulcer and rash but not a "bull's eye" rash. Choice D, Toxoplasmosis, does not typically present with a "bull's eye" rash.

2. At what age does a 9-year-old child typically lose which of the following teeth?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A 9-year-old child typically loses their central incisors, not the lateral incisors or second molars. The central incisors are usually among the first teeth that children lose around 6 to 7 years of age, as part of the natural process of shedding primary teeth to make way for permanent teeth. The second molars and cuspids are typically lost later in the mixed dentition phase. Therefore, option A, 'Central incisor,' is the correct answer.

3. A client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax is concerned about the continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. What should the nurse explain to the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube system indicates an air leak. An air leak can prevent the lung from fully re-expanding and may lead to complications like a recurrent pneumothorax. Therefore, it is crucial to investigate and address the air leak promptly. Choices B and C are incorrect because continuous bubbling is not normal and does not indicate lung expansion. Choice D is incorrect because the nurse should first assess and then report the issue to the healthcare provider.

4. A client who is at full-term gestation is in active labor and complains of a cramp in her leg. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client in active labor complaining of a leg cramp is to extend the leg and flex the foot. This action helps stretch the muscles that are cramping, providing relief. Massaging the calf and foot (Choice A) may not be as effective for relieving the cramp. Elevating the leg above the heart (Choice B) is not indicated for a leg cramp. Checking the pedal pulse in the affected leg (Choice C) is unrelated to addressing the leg cramp.

5. The PN identifies an electrolyte imbalance, exhibited by changes in mental status, and an elevated blood pressure for a client with progressive heart disease. Which intervention should the PN implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Evaluating for muscle cramping, which is a sign of electrolyte imbalance, is crucial in this scenario. Electrolyte imbalances, especially involving potassium or calcium, can lead to serious complications such as arrhythmias or seizures, which need immediate attention. Recording eating patterns (choice A) may be important for overall assessment but is not the priority in this situation. Documenting abdominal girth (choice C) and elevating legs on pillows (choice D) are not directly related to addressing the immediate concern of electrolyte imbalance and its potential complications.

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