HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam
1. A nurse is assisting in the admission of a young adult female Korean exchange student with acute abdominal pain. When asked about her sexual activity, she looks away. What should the nurse do?
- A. Omit this question from the assessment form
- B. Ask her if she would like an interpreter present to assist with communication
- C. Reword the question to ensure the client's understanding
- D. Watch the client's response when asked a different question
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Observing the client's response to a different question can help gauge her comfort level and understanding, which is essential in culturally sensitive care. By watching her response to a different question, the nurse can assess if the discomfort is related to the specific question or a broader issue. Omitting the question may result in missing crucial information. Asking about an interpreter assumes that the language barrier is the only issue, which may not be the case. Rewording the question may not address the underlying discomfort and could still lead to misinterpretation.
2. An adult female client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is receiving NPH insulin 35 units in the morning. Which finding should the PN document as evidence that the amount of insulin is inadequate?
- A. States that her feet are constantly cold and feel numb
- B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
- C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dL
- D. Reports nausea in the morning but can still eat breakfast
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. High evening glucose levels indicate that the morning dose of NPH insulin may be insufficient to control blood sugar throughout the day. Choice A is incorrect as cold and numb feet are more indicative of a circulation issue rather than an insulin inadequacy. Choice B suggests a wound infection rather than inadequate insulin. Choice D, nausea in the morning, may be due to other causes and does not necessarily indicate inadequate insulin dosage.
3. The PN is caring for a laboring client whose last sterile vaginal examination revealed the cervix was 3 cm dilated, 50% effaced, and the presenting part was at 0 station. An hour later, the client tells the PN that she wants to go to the bathroom. Which action is most important for the PN to implement?
- A. Review the fetal heart rate and contraction pattern
- B. Check the perineum for an increase in bloody show
- C. Request a nurse to check the client's cervical dilation
- D. Palpate the client's bladder for distention
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The sudden urge to use the bathroom may indicate that labor is progressing quickly. Checking the cervical dilation will help determine if the client is in the transition phase of labor and if it is appropriate to allow her to get up. Reviewing the fetal heart rate and contraction pattern (Choice A) is important but not the most immediate action in this scenario. Checking the perineum for an increase in bloody show (Choice B) is relevant but not as crucial as assessing cervical dilation. Palpating the client's bladder for distention (Choice D) is not the priority when the client wants to go to the bathroom during labor.
4. In a group therapy setting, one member is very demanding, repeatedly interrupting others and taking most of the group time. The nurse's best response would be:
- A. Will you briefly summarize your point because others need time as well?
- B. Your behavior is obnoxious and drains the group.
- C. I am so frustrated with your behavior.
- D. To ignore the behavior and allow him to vent
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a group therapy setting, where each member should have the opportunity to participate, it is essential for the nurse to manage disruptive behavior assertively yet respectfully. Choice A is the best response as it addresses the issue of one member dominating the group time by asking them to summarize their point briefly, allowing others to contribute. Choice B is confrontational and may alienate the individual, hindering the therapeutic process. Choice C expresses personal frustration, which is not constructive in managing the situation. Choice D of ignoring the behavior is not effective as it allows the disruptive behavior to continue, impacting the group dynamics negatively.
5. A client is post-operative day two from an abdominal surgery and reports feeling weak and lightheaded when attempting to get out of bed. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Encourage the client to drink fluids.
- B. Assist the client back to bed and monitor vital signs.
- C. Administer a prescribed antiemetic.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse's priority action should be to assist the client back to bed and monitor vital signs. The client's symptoms of feeling weak and lightheaded could indicate potential issues like hypotension or dehydration, which need to be assessed promptly. Encouraging fluids (Choice A) could be beneficial but is not the immediate priority. Administering an antiemetic (Choice C) may not address the underlying cause of the client's symptoms. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done after the client has been stabilized and assessed.
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