Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assigned to administer medications in a long-term care facility. A disoriented resident has no identification band or picture. What is the best nursing action for the nurse to take prior to administering the medications to this resident?

• A. Ask a regular staff member to confirm the resident's identity
• B. Hold the medication until a family member can confirm identity
• C. Re-orient the resident to name, place, and situation
• D. Confirm the room and bed numbers with those on the medication record

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a long-term care facility, when a disoriented resident lacks identification, it is crucial to confirm the resident's identity before administering medication to prevent errors. Asking a regular staff member who is familiar with the resident to confirm their identity is the best course of action. This ensures accuracy and safety in medication administration. Holding the medication until a family member can confirm the identity could delay necessary treatment. Re-orienting the resident is important for their well-being but does not address the immediate medication safety concern. Confirming room and bed numbers, though important for administration logistics, does not verify the resident's identity.

2. At the end of a 12-hour shift, the PN observes the urine in a client's drainage bag as seen in the picture. Which action should the PN take next?

• A. Offer to administer a prescribed PRN analgesic
• B. Obtain a finger stick capillary glucose level
• C. Determine if the client's bladder feels distended
• D. Note the most recent white blood cell count

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Noting the white blood cell count is the most appropriate action in this situation. Changes in urine appearance could indicate infection, and assessing the white blood cell count helps in evaluating the possibility of infection. This is crucial for understanding the client's overall condition. The other options are not directly related to assessing infection based on urine appearance. Offering analgesics, checking glucose levels, or determining bladder distention may not address the underlying issue of a potential infection.

3. A client reports being able to swallow only small bites of solid food and liquids for the last 3 months. The PN should assess the client for what additional information?

• A. Past traumatic injury to the neck
• B. Daily consumption of hot beverages
• C. History of alcohol or tobacco use
• D. Daily dietary intake of roughage

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: History of alcohol or tobacco use. A history of alcohol or tobacco use is significant as both are risk factors for esophageal cancer or other esophageal disorders that could cause difficulty swallowing (dysphagia). This information helps in evaluating the underlying cause of the symptom. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in this context. While a past traumatic injury to the neck could potentially cause swallowing difficulties, given the chronic nature of the symptom in this case, it is more important to focus on potential risk factors associated with esophageal disorders like alcohol and tobacco use. Daily consumption of hot beverages and daily dietary intake of roughage are less likely to be directly related to the client's current swallowing issue.

4. Which of the following is an appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing a hypertensive crisis?

• A. Placing the patient in a supine position
• B. Administering a beta-blocker intravenously
• C. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids
• D. Applying a cold compress to the forehead

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering a beta-blocker intravenously is the correct intervention for a patient experiencing a hypertensive crisis. Beta-blockers help quickly reduce blood pressure and prevent complications such as stroke or heart attack. Placing the patient in a supine position can worsen the condition by reducing venous return and increasing the workload of the heart. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids is not recommended as it can exacerbate hypertension by increasing fluid volume. Applying a cold compress to the forehead does not address the underlying cause of the hypertensive crisis and is unlikely to provide significant benefit.

5. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

• A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
• B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
• C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
• D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

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