at one minute after birth an infant is crying has a heart rate of 140 has acrocyanosis resists the suction catheter and keeps his arms extended and hi
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI PN Exit Exam 2024

1. At one minute after birth, an infant is crying, has a heart rate of 140, has acrocyanosis, resists the suction catheter, and keeps his arms extended and his legs flexed. What is the Apgar score?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Apgar score is based on five components: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. In this case, the infant has a heart rate over 100 (2 points), is crying (2 points indicating good respiratory effort), resists the catheter (2 points for good reflex irritability), but has acrocyanosis (partial point deduction of 1). Thus, the Apgar score at one minute after birth would be 8. Choice A is incorrect as the given signs indicate a higher score. Choice B is incorrect as the signs described support a score above 6. Choice D is incorrect as it represents a perfect score which is not the case here due to acrocyanosis.

2. What is the function of the epiglottis during swallowing?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The epiglottis is a flap of tissue that closes over the trachea during swallowing to prevent food and liquids from entering the airway. Choice A is correct because the primary function of the epiglottis is to act as a lid over the trachea, ensuring that food goes down the esophagus and not into the windpipe. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not describe the specific role of the epiglottis during swallowing.

3. While assessing an older male client who takes psychotropic medications, the nurse observes uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking. Which information in the client's medical record should the nurse review?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms of uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking are indicative of tardive dyskinesia, a possible side effect of long-term use of psychotropic medications. Reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia is crucial to assess if these symptoms are related to the medication. Option A, the prescription for lorazepam, is less relevant as the focus should be on potential side effects rather than the specific medication. Option B, history of Parkinson's disease, is not directly related to the observed symptoms, which are more likely linked to medication side effects. Option D, recent urine drug screen report, is not as pertinent in this context compared to reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia.

4. Which task could the PN safely delegate to the UAP?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because oral feeding of a child is a task that can be safely delegated to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). This task involves providing basic care and does not require specialized nursing skills. Choices B, C, and D involve assessments, recording client goals, and evaluating pain, respectively, which all require specialized nursing knowledge, judgment, and skills. These tasks are not within the scope of practice for a UAP.

5. A client with a prescription for a transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulator (TENS) unit for pain management asks how it works. What information should the nurse reinforce?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. TENS works by delivering a mild electrical stimulus that can block pain signals from reaching the brain, effectively reducing the perception of pain. Choice A is incorrect because TENS does not distract from pain but rather interferes with pain signals. Choice B is incorrect as TENS does not involve infusing medication into the spinal canal. Choice C is also incorrect because TENS does not target the cerebral cortex to dull pain perception but rather works at the level of nerve conduction.

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