a female client tells the nurse that her hemorrhoids are inflamed and hurt constantly which intervention is best for the nurse to implement to complet
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HESI LPN

HESI PN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet

1. What should the nurse do to complete a focused assessment for a female client with inflamed and painful hemorrhoids?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Asking the client about the duration of discomfort related to hemorrhoids is the best intervention to implement for a focused assessment. This information provides important context for assessing the severity and chronicity of the condition, which is crucial for developing an appropriate care plan. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the need to gather information about the duration of symptoms, which is essential for understanding the client's condition.

2. Inspiratory and expiratory stridor may be heard in a client who:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Inspiratory and expiratory stridor are high-pitched, wheezing sounds caused by disrupted airflow due to airway obstruction. Severe laryngotracheitis, involving inflammation and swelling of the larynx and trachea, leads to airway obstruction and can produce both inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Exacerbation of goiter, an acute asthmatic attack, and aspiration of a piece of meat are not typically associated with both inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.

3. An 8-year-old is placed in 90-90 traction for a fractured femur resulting from a motor vehicle collision. Which finding requires further action by the PN?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In 90-90 traction, it is crucial to ensure that the weights are not touching the foot of the bed as this can disrupt the effective application of traction. This interference can hinder the proper alignment of the fractured femur and impede the healing process. Therefore, this finding requires immediate action to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the proper application of traction and do not pose a risk to the patient's treatment or well-being. No bowel movement for two days may indicate constipation but does not directly relate to the traction. Mother assisting the child in changing positions is a supportive action. The child being able to move the toes freely when tickled indicates neurological function, which is a positive sign.

4. In a group therapy setting, one member is very demanding, repeatedly interrupting others and taking most of the group time. The nurse's best response would be:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a group therapy setting, where each member should have the opportunity to participate, it is essential for the nurse to manage disruptive behavior assertively yet respectfully. Choice A is the best response as it addresses the issue of one member dominating the group time by asking them to summarize their point briefly, allowing others to contribute. Choice B is confrontational and may alienate the individual, hindering the therapeutic process. Choice C expresses personal frustration, which is not constructive in managing the situation. Choice D of ignoring the behavior is not effective as it allows the disruptive behavior to continue, impacting the group dynamics negatively.

5. You are teaching students about how hyperosmotic agents (osmotic diuretics) are used to treat intracranial pressure. Which of the following is NOT one of the functions of hyperosmotic agents?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyperosmotic agents primarily work by reducing cerebral edema, dehydrating the brain, and drawing fluids from extravascular spaces into the plasma. However, they do not have a direct effect on reducing brain metabolism or systemic blood pressure. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B is correct as hyperosmotic agents do help in reducing cerebral edema. Choice C is accurate as hyperosmotic agents dehydrate the brain. Choice D is also true as these agents draw fluids from extravascular spaces into the plasma.

Similar Questions

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At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?
A 12-year-old child is receiving a blood transfusion via an infusion pump and begins to complain of 'itchy' skin 15 minutes after the unit of blood is started. The child appears flushed. What action should the nurse take first?
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