Nursing Elites

1. The PN notes that an older female client has developed a nonproductive cough and seems more confused than the previous day. Vital signs are temperature 99.8°F, pulse 94, respirations 22, and B/P 108/54. Which intervention is most important for the PN to implement?

• A. Report the findings to the charge nurse
• B. Monitor the client's temperature hourly
• C. Offer the client fluids frequently
• D. Provide care to moisten oral mucosa

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The change in the client’s condition, especially confusion and a new cough, may indicate the onset of an infection such as pneumonia, which requires immediate attention. Reporting to the charge nurse ensures prompt evaluation and intervention. Monitoring the client's temperature hourly (Choice B) could be important but not the most critical at this point. Offering the client fluids frequently (Choice C) and providing care to moisten oral mucosa (Choice D) are not the priority interventions when facing potential signs of infection and confusion in the client.

2. A client is recovering from abdominal surgery and has a nasogastric (NG) tube in place. The nurse notes that the client is experiencing nausea despite the NG tube being patent. What is the nurse's best action?

• A. Increase the suction on the NG tube.
• B. Administer an antiemetic as prescribed.
• C. Irrigate the NG tube with saline.
• D. Reposition the client to the left side.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering an antiemetic as prescribed is the best action for the nurse to take when a client with a patent NG tube is experiencing nausea. This intervention can help relieve nausea effectively. Increasing suction on the NG tube (Choice A) may not address the underlying cause of the nausea and could potentially lead to complications. Irrigating the NG tube with saline (Choice C) is not indicated for addressing nausea in this scenario. Repositioning the client to the left side (Choice D) is not the priority intervention for nausea in a client with a patent NG tube.

3. The nurse is performing a psychosocial assessment on an adolescent aged 14. Which emotional response is typical during early adolescence?

• A. Frequent anger
• B. Cooperativeness
• C. Moodiness
• D. Combativeness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Moodiness is a typical emotional response during early adolescence. Hormonal changes and developmental challenges contribute to this behavior. While anger and combativeness can also be present during adolescence, they are not as consistently typical as moodiness. Cooperativeness, on the other hand, is a trait more commonly associated with later stages of development and maturity, rather than early adolescence.

4. When administering IV fluids to a client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF), what is the nurse's primary concern?

• A. Monitoring for signs of fluid overload.
• B. Ensuring the client receives enough fluids to prevent dehydration.
• C. Preventing electrolyte imbalances.
• D. Maintaining the prescribed rate of fluid administration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary concern when administering IV fluids to a client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) is monitoring for signs of fluid overload. Clients with CHF are particularly vulnerable to fluid overload, which can exacerbate their condition. Signs of fluid overload include edema and difficulty breathing. Therefore, the nurse must closely monitor these signs to prevent worsening of the client's condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while ensuring hydration, preventing electrolyte imbalances, and maintaining the prescribed rate of fluid administration are important, they are secondary concerns compared to the critical task of monitoring for fluid overload in a client with CHF.

5. A post-operative client is recovering from a total knee replacement and is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). What is the primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain?

• A. It allows for consistent pain control without overmedication.
• B. It eliminates the need for oral pain medication.
• C. It reduces the risk of opioid addiction.
• D. It requires less monitoring by nursing staff.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain is that it allows the client to control the administration of pain medication, leading to consistent pain control without overmedication. Choice B is incorrect as PCA does not eliminate the need for oral pain medication; it supplements it. Choice C is incorrect because while PCA can help reduce opioid consumption, it does not directly reduce the risk of opioid addiction. Choice D is incorrect as PCA actually requires close monitoring by nursing staff to ensure proper use and prevent complications.

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