Nursing Elites

1. Which information should the nurse collect during the admission assessment of a terminally ill client to an acute care facility?

• A. Name of funeral home to contact
• B. Client's wishes regarding organ donation
• C. Contact information for the client's next of kin
• D. Healthcare proxy information

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the admission assessment of a terminally ill client, it is crucial for the nurse to collect the client's wishes regarding organ donation. This information is vital to ensure that the care provided aligns with the client's values and preferences. Option A, 'Name of funeral home to contact,' is not a priority during the admission assessment and can be addressed later. Option C, 'Contact information for the client's next of kin,' is important but not as critical as understanding the client's wishes regarding organ donation. Option D, 'Healthcare proxy information,' is important for decision-making if the client is unable to make healthcare decisions, but knowing the client's wishes regarding organ donation takes precedence in this scenario.

2. The PN is reviewing instructions for the use of pilocarpine eye drops with a client who has glaucoma. The client replies that the drops are used to anesthetize the eye if eye pain is experienced. What action should the PN implement?

• A. Document in the chart that the client understands the correct action and use of eye drops
• B. Reassure the client that the drops will not be needed often since eye pain in glaucoma is not common
• C. Reteach the client about the action of the eye drops to decrease pressure in the eyes
• D. Explain to the client that the eye drops do not anesthetize the eyes but reduce pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pilocarpine eye drops are used to reduce intraocular pressure in glaucoma, not to anesthetize the eye. The PN should reteach the client about the purpose of the medication to ensure proper use and understanding, which is crucial for effective treatment. Choice A is incorrect because just documenting understanding without addressing the client's misconception is not enough. Choice B is incorrect as it provides incorrect information about the purpose of the eye drops and may lead to further misunderstanding. Choice D is incorrect as it provides inaccurate information stating that the drops provide pain relief, which is not their primary purpose.

3. Which type of isolation precaution is required for a patient with tuberculosis (TB)?

• A. Droplet precautions
• B. Contact precautions
• C. Airborne precautions
• D. Standard precautions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Airborne precautions. Tuberculosis (TB) is transmitted via airborne particles, thus requiring airborne precautions to prevent the spread of infection. This includes using an N95 respirator to filter out small infectious particles. Droplet precautions (Choice A) are used for diseases that spread through large respiratory droplets. Contact precautions (Choice B) are for direct or indirect contact with the patient or their environment. Standard precautions (Choice D) are used for all patients to prevent the spread of infection through blood, bodily fluids, non-intact skin, and mucous membranes.

4. In which type of cardiomyopathy does septal involvement occur?

• A. Congestive
• B. Dilated
• C. Hypertrophic
• D. Restrictive

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Septal involvement is a characteristic feature of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, where the septal wall of the heart thickens. This thickening can obstruct blood flow out of the heart, leading to complications such as arrhythmias and heart failure. This differentiates it from other types of cardiomyopathy. In congestive cardiomyopathy (choice A), the heart's chambers become enlarged and weakened, but there is no specific mention of septal involvement. Dilated cardiomyopathy (choice B) involves dilation and impaired contraction of the heart chambers, not specifically septal thickening. Restrictive cardiomyopathy (choice D) is characterized by stiffening of the heart muscle, affecting its ability to fill properly, without direct involvement of the septum.

5. After administering pantoprazole to a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), which statement by the client indicates to the nurse that the medication is producing the desired effect?

• A. After eating my meal, I did not experience any heartburn
• B. I have a great appetite and am feeling really hungry
• C. I should increase the amount of vitamin C in my diet
• D. While eating, I had no difficulty swallowing any of the foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Pantoprazole reduces stomach acid production, thus preventing the occurrence of heartburn after meals, which is a common symptom of GERD. Choice B is incorrect because an increased appetite and hunger are not indicators of the desired effect of pantoprazole. Choice C is unrelated to the medication's effect on GERD symptoms. Choice D is also incorrect because the absence of difficulty swallowing is not a specific indicator of pantoprazole's effectiveness in treating GERD.

Similar Questions