which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of smell
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of smell?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The olfactory nerve (Cranial Nerve I) is indeed responsible for the sense of smell. It is located in the nasal cavity and transmits olfactory information to the brain. The optic nerve (Choice B) is responsible for vision, the trigeminal nerve (Choice C) is responsible for sensation in the face, and the vagus nerve (Choice D) is responsible for various functions such as heart rate, digestion, and speech. Therefore, the correct answer is the olfactory nerve (Choice A).

2. When a small fire breaks out in the kitchen of a long-term care facility, which task is most important for the nurse to perform instead of assigning to a UAP?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a fire emergency in a long-term care facility, the most critical task for the nurse is to identify the method for transporting and evacuating each resident. This task requires quick decision-making and critical thinking, which are essential in ensuring the safety and well-being of the residents. Closing the doors to residents' rooms (Choice A) can help contain the fire but should not be the nurse's top priority. While offering comfort and reassurance (Choice B) is important, the immediate focus should be on ensuring safe evacuation. Providing blankets (Choice D) is also important but comes after ensuring safe transportation and evacuation plans are in place.

3. The PN is reviewing instructions for the use of pilocarpine eye drops with a client who has glaucoma. The client replies that the drops are used to anesthetize the eye if eye pain is experienced. What action should the PN implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pilocarpine eye drops are used to reduce intraocular pressure in glaucoma, not to anesthetize the eye. The PN should reteach the client about the purpose of the medication to ensure proper use and understanding, which is crucial for effective treatment. Choice A is incorrect because just documenting understanding without addressing the client's misconception is not enough. Choice B is incorrect as it provides incorrect information about the purpose of the eye drops and may lead to further misunderstanding. Choice D is incorrect as it provides inaccurate information stating that the drops provide pain relief, which is not their primary purpose.

4. Which condition is commonly screened for in newborns using the Guthrie test?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Guthrie test is specifically designed to screen newborns for phenylketonuria (PKU), a metabolic disorder that can lead to intellectual disability if left untreated. Phenylketonuria is caused by the deficiency of an enzyme required to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine. Screening for PKU in newborns is crucial as early diagnosis and intervention can prevent the severe consequences associated with the condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the Guthrie test is not used to screen for cystic fibrosis, Down syndrome, or sickle cell anemia.

5. What is the primary purpose of performing range-of-motion (ROM) exercises?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of performing range-of-motion (ROM) exercises is to prevent muscle atrophy and joint contractures. These exercises are crucial in maintaining joint mobility and muscle flexibility, especially in patients who are immobilized or have limited mobility. Improving cardiovascular fitness (Choice A) involves different types of exercises that target the heart and blood vessels, not specifically ROM exercises. Increasing respiratory function (Choice C) is typically achieved through breathing exercises and activities that enhance lung capacity. Enhancing cognitive function (Choice D) is usually addressed through cognitive exercises and activities that stimulate brain function.

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