a child with glomerulonephritis is admitted in the acute edematous phase based on this diagnosis which nursing intervention should the pn plan to incl
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HESI LPN

HESI PN Exit Exam 2024

1. A child with glomerulonephritis is admitted in the acute edematous phase. Based on this diagnosis, which nursing intervention should the PN plan to include in the child's plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to measure blood pressure every 4 to 6 hours. In glomerulonephritis, monitoring blood pressure is crucial as hypertension is a common complication. This helps in assessing the child's condition and response to treatment. Choice A, recommending parents bring favorite snacks, is not related to managing glomerulonephritis. Choice B, encouraging ambulation daily to the playroom, may not be appropriate during the acute edematous phase when the child may be experiencing fluid overload. Choice D, offering a selection of fresh fruit for each meal, is not directly relevant to managing the complications of glomerulonephritis.

2. Based on the computer documentation in the EMR, which action should the PN implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The rubella vaccine is crucial for preventing rubella infection, which can cause severe congenital disabilities if contracted during pregnancy. Administering the vaccine subcutaneously is the correct action based on EMR documentation. Observing breastfeeding, calling the nursery for blood type results, and administering pain medication are not indicated by the EMR documentation and are not relevant to the situation described in the question.

3. In which type of cardiomyopathy does septal involvement occur?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Septal involvement is a characteristic feature of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, where the septal wall of the heart thickens. This thickening can obstruct blood flow out of the heart, leading to complications such as arrhythmias and heart failure. This differentiates it from other types of cardiomyopathy. In congestive cardiomyopathy (choice A), the heart's chambers become enlarged and weakened, but there is no specific mention of septal involvement. Dilated cardiomyopathy (choice B) involves dilation and impaired contraction of the heart chambers, not specifically septal thickening. Restrictive cardiomyopathy (choice D) is characterized by stiffening of the heart muscle, affecting its ability to fill properly, without direct involvement of the septum.

4. At one minute after birth, an infant is crying, has a heart rate of 140, has acrocyanosis, resists the suction catheter, and keeps his arms extended and his legs flexed. What is the Apgar score?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Apgar score is based on five components: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. In this case, the infant has a heart rate over 100 (2 points), is crying (2 points indicating good respiratory effort), resists the catheter (2 points for good reflex irritability), but has acrocyanosis (partial point deduction of 1). Thus, the Apgar score at one minute after birth would be 8. Choice A is incorrect as the given signs indicate a higher score. Choice B is incorrect as the signs described support a score above 6. Choice D is incorrect as it represents a perfect score which is not the case here due to acrocyanosis.

5. After administering pantoprazole to a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), which statement by the client indicates to the nurse that the medication is producing the desired effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Pantoprazole reduces stomach acid production, thus preventing the occurrence of heartburn after meals, which is a common symptom of GERD. Choice B is incorrect because an increased appetite and hunger are not indicators of the desired effect of pantoprazole. Choice C is unrelated to the medication's effect on GERD symptoms. Choice D is also incorrect because the absence of difficulty swallowing is not a specific indicator of pantoprazole's effectiveness in treating GERD.

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