HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2023
1. A female Native American client who is receiving chemotherapy places a native artifact, an Indian medicine wheel, in her hospital room. The HCP removes the medicine wheel and tells the client, 'This type of thing does not belong in the hospital.' Which intervention should the PN implement?
- A. Teach the client about the importance of adhering to the chemotherapy regimen
- B. Act as the client's advocate when addressing the issue with the HCP
- C. Consult with a Native American healer about the appropriate use of a medicine wheel
- D. Inform the HCP about the client's feelings of culture shock
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Acting as the client's advocate is the most appropriate intervention in this situation. Removing a culturally significant artifact without considering the client's beliefs and emotional needs can be distressing. By advocating for the client, the PN can ensure that the client's cultural practices are respected, which is crucial for her emotional and spiritual well-being during treatment. Choice A is incorrect because while chemotherapy adherence is important, it is not the most immediate concern in this scenario. The client's cultural needs and well-being take precedence. Choice C is incorrect because consulting with a Native American healer might not be necessary at this point and could delay addressing the immediate issue of advocating for the client's rights. Choice D is incorrect because simply reporting the client's feelings of culture shock to the HCP does not actively address the situation or advocate for the client's rights and cultural needs.
2. Which condition is commonly screened for in newborns using the Guthrie test?
- A. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
- B. Cystic fibrosis
- C. Down syndrome
- D. Sickle cell anemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The Guthrie test is specifically designed to screen newborns for phenylketonuria (PKU), a metabolic disorder that can lead to intellectual disability if left untreated. Phenylketonuria is caused by the deficiency of an enzyme required to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine. Screening for PKU in newborns is crucial as early diagnosis and intervention can prevent the severe consequences associated with the condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the Guthrie test is not used to screen for cystic fibrosis, Down syndrome, or sickle cell anemia.
3. What is the primary role of the sinoatrial (SA) node in the heart?
- A. Pacemaker of the heart
- B. Blood pressure regulation
- C. Electrical conduction delay
- D. Stimulating muscle contraction
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pacemaker of the heart. The SA node, known as the natural pacemaker, initiates the electrical impulses that set the rhythm for the heartbeat. It is responsible for coordinating the heart's contractions by generating electrical signals at regular intervals. Choice B is incorrect as the SA node's primary function is not related to blood pressure regulation. Choice C is incorrect as the SA node does not cause electrical conduction delay but rather initiates and conducts the electrical impulses. Choice D is incorrect as the SA node does not directly stimulate muscle contraction but rather initiates the electrical events that lead to muscle contraction.
4. After spinal fusion surgery, a client reports numbness and tingling in the legs. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Assess the client’s neurovascular status in the lower extremities.
- B. Reposition the client to relieve pressure on the spine.
- C. Administer prescribed pain medication.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After spinal fusion surgery, numbness and tingling in the legs may indicate nerve compression or damage. The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client’s neurovascular status in the lower extremities. This assessment will help determine the cause and severity of the symptoms, guiding further interventions. Repositioning the client may be necessary for comfort, but assessing neurovascular status is the initial step. Administering pain medication should only follow the assessment to address any discomfort. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately is not the first action unless there are emergent signs requiring urgent intervention.
5. Which assessment finding would most likely indicate a complication of enteral tube feeding?
- A. Abdominal distension
- B. Weight gain
- C. Decreased bowel sounds
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Abdominal distension in a patient receiving enteral tube feeding may indicate a complication such as intolerance to feeding, delayed gastric emptying, or obstruction. Abdominal distension is a common sign of gastrointestinal issues related to enteral tube feeding. Weight gain is typically an expected outcome if the patient is receiving adequate nutrition. Decreased bowel sounds may indicate decreased motility but are not specific to enteral tube feeding complications. Diarrhea can occur due to various reasons, including infections, medications, or dietary changes, but it is not the most likely indication of a complication in enteral tube feeding.
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