during a clinic visit for a sore throat a clients basal metabolic panel reveals a serum potassium of 30 meql which intervention should the pn recommen
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HESI LPN

HESI PN Exit Exam

1. During a clinic visit for a sore throat, a client's basal metabolic panel reveals a serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L. Which intervention should the PN recommend to the client based on this finding?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to recommend increasing the intake of dried peaches and apricots. A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is considered low. Increasing the intake of potassium-rich foods can help raise the serum potassium level, preventing complications such as muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias. Choice B, reducing intake of red meats, is incorrect because red meats are not specifically related to potassium levels. Choice C, encouraging the use of a soft toothbrush, is unrelated to addressing low potassium levels. Choice D, forcing fluid intake to 1500 mL daily, is not the appropriate intervention for low serum potassium; instead, increasing potassium-rich foods is more beneficial.

2. What is the first action a healthcare professional should take when a patient’s nasogastric (NG) tube becomes clogged?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient's nasogastric (NG) tube becomes clogged, the first action to take is to attempt to aspirate the clog with a syringe. This is a standard and initial step to clear the blockage in the tube. Flushing the tube with water (Choice A) may not address the specific clog; repositioning the patient (Choice B) is not directly related to clearing the tube. Administering a medication to dissolve the clog (Choice D) should only be considered after simpler methods like aspiration have been attempted.

3. The PN observes a UAP bathing a bedfast client with the bed in the high position. Which action should the PN take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the PN to take in this situation is to instruct the UAP to lower the bed for safety. Keeping the bed in the lowest position during care activities is crucial for preventing falls and injuries to both the client and the caregiver. Instructing the UAP to lower the bed addresses the immediate safety concern. Choice A is incorrect because simply supervising the UAP without addressing the unsafe bed height does not ensure the client's safety. Choice B is incorrect as the priority is to address the safety concern rather than offering assistance to the UAP. Choice C is incorrect as assuming care of the client immediately does not address the root issue of the high bed position.

4. After admission, which observation is most important for the nurse to report immediately for an adult client who weighs 150 pounds and has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns over 40% of the body from a house fire?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urinary output of 20 ml/hr is a sign of inadequate kidney perfusion and could indicate hypovolemic shock, which requires immediate intervention. In this situation, with severe burns over a large portion of the body, monitoring urinary output is crucial to assess kidney function and fluid status. Poor appetite, systolic blood pressure at 102, and painful moaning and crying are important but do not indicate the immediate need for intervention like inadequate urinary output does.

5. Which of the following is NOT a second-line agent used for the treatment of Tuberculosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Rifabutin. Rifabutin is actually a first-line drug used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Choices A, B, and D (Amikacin, Moxifloxacin, and Cycloserine) are considered second-line agents for tuberculosis treatment. These drugs are used when the first-line medications are either ineffective or cannot be tolerated by the patient.

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