Nursing Elites

1. A client who had a hip replacement is being prepared for discharge. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching to prevent hip dislocation?

• A. Avoid crossing your legs at the knees or ankles.
• B. Do not sleep on the side of the hip that was operated on.
• C. Sit in high chairs and keep your knees higher than your hips.
• D. Do not bend forward at the waist to pick up objects.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoid crossing your legs at the knees or ankles.' Crossing legs at the knees or ankles can cause excessive stress on the new hip joint, leading to a risk of dislocation. Choice B is incorrect because sleeping on the side of the operated hip can also increase the risk of dislocation. Choice C is incorrect as sitting in low chairs with knees higher than hips is a recommended position to prevent hip dislocation. Choice D is incorrect because bending forward at the waist to pick up objects can strain the hip joint and increase the risk of dislocation.

2. The PN notes that a UAP is ambulating a male client who had a stroke and has right-sided weakness. The UAP is walking on the client's left side. Which action should the PN take?

• A. Instruct the UAP to walk on the client's affected side
• B. Take over the ambulation and provide guidance to the UAP immediately
• C. Provide the client with an assistive device, such as a cane or walker
• D. Tell the UAP to take the client back to his room

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the PN to take is to instruct the UAP to walk on the client’s affected side. This is essential to provide the necessary support and prevent falls, especially when the client has weakness on one side due to a stroke. Walking on the affected side helps provide stability and assistance to the weaker side. Choice B is incorrect because it would be more appropriate for the PN to provide immediate guidance and correct the UAP's positioning rather than taking over the task completely. Choice C is incorrect because while assistive devices may be beneficial, the immediate concern is the UAP's positioning during ambulation, not providing the client with an assistive device. Choice D is incorrect as there is no indication to return the client to his room unless it is necessary for his safety or well-being.

3. A client is admitted to the postoperative surgical unit with two test tubes after a left lobectomy. The nurse observed that the chambers are set at the prescribed suction of 20 cm water pressure, and tidying occurs with respirations and bubbling. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Clamp the chest tube to see if the bubbling activity stops
• B. Notify the registered nurse of the observed bubbling
• C. Maintain system integrity to promote lung reexpansion
• D. Apply an occlusive dressing to the chest

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Maintaining system integrity is essential to promote lung reexpansion in postoperative patients with chest tubes. Clamping the chest tube abruptly can lead to tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening condition. The bubbling observed is a normal sign indicating that the system is functioning correctly, as it allows the drainage of air or fluid from the pleural space. Notifying the registered nurse may be necessary if there are significant concerns or changes observed, but the immediate action should be to ensure system integrity and lung reexpansion.

4. According to the principle of asepsis, which situation should the PN consider to be sterile?

• A. A one-inch border around the edges of a sterile field set up in the operating room
• B. A sterile glove that the PN thinks might have touched hair
• C. A wrapped, unopened sterile 4x4 gauze pad placed on a damp table top
• D. An open sterile Foley catheter kit set up on a table at the PN's waist level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: According to the principle of asepsis, the one-inch border around the edges of a sterile field set up in the operating room is considered non-sterile, while the central area remains sterile. Therefore, the PN should consider the situation described in choice A to be sterile. Choice B is incorrect because a glove that may have touched hair is contaminated. Choice C is incorrect as a sterile item placed on a damp surface is considered contaminated. Choice D is incorrect as a sterile kit set up at the PN's waist level is prone to contamination.

5. Before administering an antibiotic that can cause nephrotoxicity, which lab value is most important for the PN to review?

• A. Hemoglobin and Hematocrit
• B. Serum Calcium
• C. Serum Creatinine
• D. WBC

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Serum creatinine is the most important lab value to review before administering an antibiotic that can cause nephrotoxicity. This is because serum creatinine is a key indicator of kidney function. An elevated serum creatinine level may indicate impaired renal function, and administering nephrotoxic drugs in such situations can further damage the kidneys. Monitoring serum creatinine levels helps healthcare providers assess renal function and make informed decisions regarding drug administration. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly related to kidney function and nephrotoxicity, making them less crucial in this scenario. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels assess for anemia, serum calcium levels are more related to bone health and nerve function, and WBC count is associated with immune response, none of which directly reflect kidney function or the risk of nephrotoxicity.

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