a client is post operative day one following a colostomy surgery the nurse notices the stoma is dark purple what is the most appropriate action
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HESI LPN

HESI PN Exit Exam 2024

1. A client is post-operative day one following a colostomy surgery. The nurse notices the stoma is dark purple. What is the most appropriate action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A dark purple stoma may indicate compromised blood flow to the stoma, which is an emergency. Immediate notification of the healthcare provider is necessary to prevent further complications. Simply documenting and monitoring the finding (Choice A) could lead to delays in addressing a potentially serious issue. Applying warm compresses to the stoma (Choice B) may not address the underlying cause of the dark purple color. Encouraging the client to ambulate (Choice D) is not the priority when a compromised blood flow to the stoma is suspected.

2. What is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Graves' disease is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism. It is characterized by an overactive thyroid gland due to autoantibodies stimulating the thyroid. Hashimoto's thyroiditis is actually a cause of hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism. Thyroid nodules and pituitary adenoma are not common causes of hyperthyroidism.

3. Which of the following is an appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing a hypertensive crisis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering a beta-blocker intravenously is the correct intervention for a patient experiencing a hypertensive crisis. Beta-blockers help quickly reduce blood pressure and prevent complications such as stroke or heart attack. Placing the patient in a supine position can worsen the condition by reducing venous return and increasing the workload of the heart. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids is not recommended as it can exacerbate hypertension by increasing fluid volume. Applying a cold compress to the forehead does not address the underlying cause of the hypertensive crisis and is unlikely to provide significant benefit.

4. The PN notes that a UAP is ambulating a male client who had a stroke and has right-sided weakness. The UAP is walking on the client's left side. Which action should the PN take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the PN to take is to instruct the UAP to walk on the client’s affected side. This is essential to provide the necessary support and prevent falls, especially when the client has weakness on one side due to a stroke. Walking on the affected side helps provide stability and assistance to the weaker side. Choice B is incorrect because it would be more appropriate for the PN to provide immediate guidance and correct the UAP's positioning rather than taking over the task completely. Choice C is incorrect because while assistive devices may be beneficial, the immediate concern is the UAP's positioning during ambulation, not providing the client with an assistive device. Choice D is incorrect as there is no indication to return the client to his room unless it is necessary for his safety or well-being.

5. An older client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for assessment of a recent onset of dementia. The PN notes that in the evening this client often becomes restless, confused, and agitated. Which intervention is most important for the PN to implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sundowning, a phenomenon where dementia symptoms worsen in the evening, can be managed by ensuring the client is close to the nurses' station for frequent monitoring and quick intervention, if necessary. This reduces the risk of harm and helps manage agitation. Asking family members to remain with the client may not always be feasible and does not address the need for close monitoring. Administering benzodiazepines should not be the first-line intervention for sundowning as it can increase the risk of falls and other adverse effects. Postponing medication administration may disrupt the client's routine and potentially worsen symptoms.

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