Nursing Elites

1. A male client with TB returns to the clinic for daily antibiotic injections for a urinary infection. The client has been taking anti-tubercular medications for 10 weeks and states he has ringing in his ears. Which prescribed medication should the PN report to the HCP?

• A. Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin
• B. Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily
• C. Rifampin 600 mg PO daily
• D. Isoniazid 300 mg PO daily

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that can cause ototoxicity, leading to ringing in the ears (tinnitus). This symptom should be reported to the HCP immediately, as it may indicate a need to adjust or discontinue the medication. Choice A, Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin, is not the cause of ototoxicity. Choices C and D, Rifampin and Isoniazid, are anti-tubercular medications but are not associated with causing ringing in the ears.

2. When documenting information in a client's medical record, what should the nurse do?

• A. Cross out errors with a single line and initial them
• B. Use a black ink pen
• C. Leave one line blank before each new entry
• D. End each entry with the nurse's signature and title

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When documenting information in a client's medical record, the nurse should end each entry with their signature and title. This practice is crucial for legal and professional standards compliance as it ensures that the documentation is attributable to the responsible individual. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while crossing out errors, using a black ink pen, and leaving a blank line before each entry are good practices, they are not as critical as ensuring each entry is signed and titled by the nurse for accountability and traceability.

3. Which intervention is most appropriate when caring for a patient experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure?

• A. Restrain the patient to prevent injury
• B. Place a tongue depressor in the patient's mouth
• C. Turn the patient to the side to maintain an open airway
• D. Attempt to stop the seizure by holding the patient’s arms

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a tonic-clonic seizure, the priority is to ensure patient safety by maintaining an open airway to prevent aspiration. Turning the patient to the side helps achieve this goal by allowing any fluids to drain out of the mouth, reducing the risk of choking or aspiration. Restraint can lead to injury, placing a tongue depressor can cause harm or obstruct the airway further, and attempting to stop the seizure by holding the patient's arms is ineffective and can also result in injury. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to turn the patient to the side.

4. The UAP is caring for a male resident of a long-term care facility who has an external urinary catheter. Which finding should the PN instruct the UAP to report immediately?

• A. Swollen and discolored penile shaft
• B. Prepuce extends over the head of the penis
• C. Leaking urine around the top of the catheter
• D. Moist and excoriated perineal skin folds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Swollen and discolored penile shaft. Swelling and discoloration of the penile shaft may indicate an infection or other complications requiring immediate attention. Prompt reporting allows for timely intervention to prevent further harm to the client. Choice B is incorrect because the prepuce extending over the head of the penis is not an urgent issue. Choice C, leaking urine around the catheter, may require intervention but is not as urgent as the swelling and discoloration described in choice A. Choice D, moist and excoriated perineal skin folds, also needs attention but is not as concerning as the potential complications indicated by the findings in choice A.

5. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

• A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
• B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
• C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
• D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

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