HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024
1. While turning and positioning a bedfast client, the PN observes that the client is dyspneic. Which action should the PN take first?
- A. Apply a pulse oximeter
- B. Measure blood pressure
- C. Notify the charge nurse
- D. Observe pressure areas
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Notifying the charge nurse promptly is the priority when a bedfast client is dyspneic. Dyspnea can indicate a serious problem that requires immediate assessment and intervention. Contacting the charge nurse ensures timely assistance and appropriate actions to address the client's condition. Applying a pulse oximeter or measuring blood pressure may provide valuable data, but the priority is prompt communication with the charge nurse to ensure quick intervention. Observing pressure areas, while important for overall client care, is not the most immediate action needed when a client is experiencing dyspnea.
2. A post-operative client develops a sudden onset of chest pain and dyspnea. The nurse suspects a pulmonary embolism (PE). What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Administer oxygen via face mask.
- B. Elevate the client's legs.
- C. Prepare the client for immediate surgery.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen via face mask is the priority nursing action in a post-operative client suspected of a pulmonary embolism. This intervention helps ensure adequate oxygenation while further assessments and interventions are initiated. Elevating the client's legs is not indicated for a suspected pulmonary embolism; it is more appropriate for conditions like shock. Immediate surgery is not the priority in this situation as the client is experiencing acute symptoms requiring prompt intervention. While notifying the healthcare provider is important, the immediate focus should be on providing oxygen to the client to support respiratory function.
3. Which action should the PN implement when using standard precautions to provide client care?
- A. Apply sterile gloves to obtain a finger stick blood sample
- B. Wear clean exam gloves to perform perineal catheter care
- C. Replace the needle cap after giving an intramuscular injection
- D. Wear a paper gown to prevent transmission of droplet pathogens
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When using standard precautions, healthcare providers should wear clean exam gloves to perform perineal catheter care. This approach helps prevent the transmission of pathogens and ensures the safety of both the client and the healthcare provider. Choice A is incorrect because applying sterile gloves for a finger stick blood sample is unnecessary when non-sterile gloves would suffice. Choice C is incorrect because replacing the needle cap after giving an intramuscular injection is not directly related to standard precautions. Choice D is incorrect because wearing a paper gown is not a standard precaution for preventing the transmission of droplet pathogens.
4. In a group therapy setting, one member is very demanding, repeatedly interrupting others and taking most of the group time. The nurse's best response would be:
- A. Will you briefly summarize your point because others need time as well?
- B. Your behavior is obnoxious and drains the group.
- C. I am so frustrated with your behavior.
- D. To ignore the behavior and allow him to vent
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a group therapy setting, where each member should have the opportunity to participate, it is essential for the nurse to manage disruptive behavior assertively yet respectfully. Choice A is the best response as it addresses the issue of one member dominating the group time by asking them to summarize their point briefly, allowing others to contribute. Choice B is confrontational and may alienate the individual, hindering the therapeutic process. Choice C expresses personal frustration, which is not constructive in managing the situation. Choice D of ignoring the behavior is not effective as it allows the disruptive behavior to continue, impacting the group dynamics negatively.
5. An adult female client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is receiving NPH insulin 35 units in the morning. Which finding should the nurse document as evidence that the amount of insulin is inadequate?
- A. States that her feet are constantly cold and numb
- B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
- C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dL
- D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Consistently high evening glucose levels indicate that the current insulin dosage is inadequate to maintain proper glucose control. Choice A is incorrect because cold and numb feet are more indicative of peripheral vascular disease rather than inadequate insulin dosage. Choice B describes a wound that may be related to poor circulation or neuropathy but not necessarily inadequate insulin dosage. Choice D suggests gastrointestinal issues that are not directly related to insulin dosage adequacy.
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