HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Exam 1
1. The nurse is assessing an older resident with a history of Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy and identifies a distended bladder. What should the nurse do?
- A. Stand the client to void and run tap water within hearing distance before catheterizing
- B. Straight catheterize and if the residual urine volume is greater than 100 mL, clamp catheter
- C. Catheterize q2h and place in an indwelling catheter at the end of the prescribed 24hr period
- D. Catheterize with an indwelling catheter and if the residual volume is greater than 100 mL, inflate the balloon
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Prompt and appropriate management of urinary retention prevents complications like infection and bladder damage.
2. Which membrane lines the abdominal cavity?
- A. Perineum
- B. Pericardium
- C. Pleura
- D. Peritoneum
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Peritoneum. The peritoneum is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity, providing support to abdominal organs and serving as a conduit for their blood vessels. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. The perineum refers to the area between the anus and the external genitalia, the pericardium is the membrane enclosing the heart, and the pleura is the membrane surrounding the lungs.
3. A client admitted to the hospital with advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism is exhibiting ascites and edema. Which pathophysiological mechanisms should the nurse identify as responsible for the third spacing symptoms? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Portal hypertension.
- B. Sodium and water retention.
- C. Decreased serum albumin.
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism, ascites and edema occur due to multiple pathophysiological mechanisms. Portal hypertension contributes to the development of ascites by increasing pressure in the portal venous system. Sodium and water retention exacerbate fluid accumulation in the third space. Decreased serum albumin levels lead to reduced oncotic pressure, contributing to the movement of fluid into the interstitial spaces. Abnormal protein metabolism further disrupts fluid balance. Therefore, all of the options (A, B, and C) are correct in this scenario, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C alone do not fully explain the comprehensive pathophysiological mechanisms involved in the development of ascites and edema in this clinical context.
4. The nurse is monitoring a client's intravenous infusion and observes that the venipuncture site is cool to the touch, swollen, and the infusion rate is slower than the prescribed rate. What is the most likely cause of this finding?
- A. The solution's rate is too rapid
- B. The client has phlebitis
- C. The infusion site is infected
- D. The infusion is infiltrated
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. An infiltrated IV occurs when fluid leaks into the surrounding tissue, causing coolness, swelling, and a slow infusion rate. Choice A is incorrect because a rapid solution rate does not typically cause these specific symptoms. Choice B, phlebitis, presents with redness, warmth, and tenderness along the vein, not coolness. Choice C, infection, usually manifests with redness, warmth, and possibly purulent drainage, not coolness and swelling.
5. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia.
- B. Hyponatremia.
- C. Hypocalcemia.
- D. Hypokalemia.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Choice A, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not typically cause high potassium levels. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is incorrect as furosemide primarily affects potassium levels, not sodium. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not directly impact calcium levels.
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