Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic liver disease. Which lab value is most concerning?

• A. Elevated AST and ALT levels
• B. Decreased albumin level
• C. Elevated bilirubin level
• D. Prolonged PT/INR

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with chronic liver disease, a prolonged PT/INR is the most concerning lab value. This finding indicates impaired liver function affecting the synthesis of clotting factors, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Elevated AST and ALT levels (Choice A) indicate liver cell damage but do not directly correlate with the risk of bleeding. A decreased albumin level (Choice B) is common in liver disease but is not the most concerning in terms of bleeding risk. Elevated bilirubin levels (Choice C) are seen in liver disease but do not directly reflect the risk of bleeding as PT/INR values do.

2. Which nursing activity is within the scope of practice for the practical nurse?

• A. Complete an admission assessment in the normal newborn nursery
• B. Discontinue a central venous catheter that has become dislodged
• C. Observe a client rotate the subcutaneous site for an insulin pump
• D. Monitor a continuous narcotic epidural for a postoperative client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Observe a client rotate the subcutaneous site for an insulin pump.' This activity is within the scope of practice for a practical nurse as it involves observing and ensuring proper technique for using an insulin pump, which aligns with their training and responsibilities. Choices A, B, and D are beyond the typical scope of practice for a practical nurse. Completing an admission assessment for a newborn nursery is usually performed by a registered nurse. Discontinuing a dislodged central venous catheter and monitoring a narcotic epidural require advanced skills and knowledge, usually carried out by registered nurses or advanced practice nurses.

3. A client is diagnosed with Angina Pectoris. Which factor in the client's history is likely related to the anginal pain?

• A. Smokes one pack of cigarettes daily
• B. Drinks two beers daily
• C. Works in a job that requires exposure to the sun
• D. Eats while lying in bed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Smokes one pack of cigarettes daily.' Smoking is a major risk factor for angina and other cardiovascular diseases due to its impact on blood vessels. Choice B, 'Drinks two beers daily,' is not directly associated with angina pectoris. While excessive alcohol consumption can contribute to heart problems, it is not a primary risk factor for angina. Choice C, 'Works in a job that requires exposure to the sun,' is not typically related to angina pectoris. Sun exposure is more closely linked to skin-related conditions. Choice D, 'Eats while lying in bed,' is also not a common risk factor for angina. While certain eating habits can impact heart health, this specific behavior is not directly associated with angina pectoris.

4. A client with a severe headache is being assessed by a nurse. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer pain relief medication
• B. Check the client's blood pressure
• C. Assess for associated symptoms such as nausea or photophobia
• D. Offer a quiet environment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client presents with a severe headache, the initial action should be to check their blood pressure. This step is crucial as it can help determine if the headache is related to hypertension or other cardiovascular issues. Administering pain relief medication should only be done after assessing the client's vital signs and confirming the cause of the headache. While assessing for associated symptoms like nausea or photophobia is important for a comprehensive evaluation, it should follow checking the blood pressure to address immediate concerns. Offering a quiet environment is indeed beneficial for the client's comfort, but it is not the priority when dealing with a severe headache.

5. A client is admitted to the hospital with second and third degree burns to the face and neck. How should the nurse best position the client to maximize function of the neck and face and prevent contracture?

• A. The neck extended backward using a rolled towel behind the neck
• B. Prone position using pillows to support both arms outward from the torso
• C. Side-lying position using pillows to support the abdomen and back
• D. The neck forward using pillows under the head and sandbags on both sides

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After sustaining burns to the face and neck, positioning is crucial to maintain functional posture, reduce pain, and prevent contractures. Placing the neck forward using pillows under the head and sandbags on both sides is the best option in this scenario. This position helps prevent neck and facial contractures, allowing for optimal function and healing. Choices A, B, and C do not adequately address the specific needs of a client with burns to the face and neck. Choice A could potentially exacerbate neck contractures, Choice B focuses on arm support rather than neck and face positioning, and Choice C does not directly address the needs of the burned face and neck, making them less effective in preventing contractures in these critical areas.

Similar Questions