Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic liver disease. Which lab value is most concerning?

• A. Elevated AST and ALT levels
• B. Decreased albumin level
• C. Elevated bilirubin level
• D. Prolonged PT/INR

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with chronic liver disease, a prolonged PT/INR is the most concerning lab value. This finding indicates impaired liver function affecting the synthesis of clotting factors, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Elevated AST and ALT levels (Choice A) indicate liver cell damage but do not directly correlate with the risk of bleeding. A decreased albumin level (Choice B) is common in liver disease but is not the most concerning in terms of bleeding risk. Elevated bilirubin levels (Choice C) are seen in liver disease but do not directly reflect the risk of bleeding as PT/INR values do.

2. A client admitted to the hospital with advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism is exhibiting ascites and edema. Which pathophysiological mechanisms should the nurse identify as responsible for the third spacing symptoms? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Portal hypertension.
• B. Sodium and water retention.
• C. Decreased serum albumin.
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism, ascites and edema occur due to multiple pathophysiological mechanisms. Portal hypertension contributes to the development of ascites by increasing pressure in the portal venous system. Sodium and water retention exacerbate fluid accumulation in the third space. Decreased serum albumin levels lead to reduced oncotic pressure, contributing to the movement of fluid into the interstitial spaces. Abnormal protein metabolism further disrupts fluid balance. Therefore, all of the options (A, B, and C) are correct in this scenario, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C alone do not fully explain the comprehensive pathophysiological mechanisms involved in the development of ascites and edema in this clinical context.

3. To assess pedal pulses, which arterial sites should the nurse palpate? (Select all that apply)

• A. Posterior tibial artery
• B. Radial artery
• C. External iliac artery
• D. Dorsalis pedis artery

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dorsalis pedis artery. When assessing pedal pulses, the nurse should palpate the dorsalis pedis artery and the posterior tibial artery. The radial artery is located in the wrist and is not a site for assessing pedal pulses. The external iliac artery is not a correct site for assessing pedal pulses in the lower extremities, making it the correct answer.

4. Based on the Nursing diagnosis of 'Potential for infection related to second and third degree burns,' which intervention has the highest priority?

• A. Application of topical antibacterial cream
• B. Use of careful hand washing technique
• C. Administration of plasma expanders
• D. Limiting visitors to the burned client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The highest priority intervention in this scenario is B, the use of careful hand washing technique. Proper hand hygiene is essential in preventing infection, especially in individuals with compromised skin integrity like those with burns. By practicing careful hand washing, healthcare providers reduce the risk of introducing harmful pathogens to the burn wound, thus lowering the chances of infections. Choice A, application of topical antibacterial cream, is important but should follow ensuring proper hand hygiene. Choice C, administration of plasma expanders, is not directly associated with preventing burn-related infections. Choice D, limiting visitors, is significant for infection control, but ensuring proper hand hygiene outweighs this intervention in terms of priority.

5. Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?

• A. A 50-year-old client with a fractured femur
• B. A 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus
• C. A 65-year-old client with limited mobility
• D. A 70-year-old client with a history of stroke

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with limited mobility are at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body. This constant pressure can lead to tissue damage and ultimately result in pressure ulcers. While age and medical conditions such as diabetes and a history of stroke can contribute to the risk of pressure ulcers, limited mobility is the most significant factor as it directly affects the ability to shift positions and relieve pressure on vulnerable areas of the body. Therefore, the 65-year-old client with limited mobility is at the highest risk compared to the other clients. The 50-year-old client with a fractured femur may have limited mobility due to the injury, but it is temporary and may not be as prolonged as chronic limited mobility. The 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus and the 70-year-old client with a history of stroke are at risk for developing pressure ulcers, but their conditions do not directly impact their ability to shift positions and alleviate pressure like limited mobility does.

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