HESI LPN
Adult Health Exam 1 Chamberlain
1. A client is scheduled for a sigmoidoscopy and expresses anxiety about the procedure. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Offer information about the procedure steps
- B. Administer an anxiolytic before the procedure
- C. Encourage the client to discuss their fears
- D. Reassure the client that the procedure is common and safe
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse when a client expresses anxiety about a procedure is to encourage the client to discuss their fears. By allowing the client to express their concerns, the nurse can provide personalized support, address specific worries, and offer tailored information. This approach helps to establish trust, reduce anxiety, and promote a therapeutic nurse-client relationship. Offering information about the procedure steps (Choice A) may be helpful but should come after addressing the client's fears. Administering an anxiolytic (Choice B) should not be the first action as it focuses on symptom management rather than addressing the underlying cause of anxiety. Reassuring the client that the procedure is common and safe (Choice D) is important but should follow active listening and addressing the client's fears.
2. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which symptom should the nurse expect to find?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Jugular vein distention
- C. Shortness of breath
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Shortness of breath is a characteristic symptom of left-sided heart failure. In this condition, the heart's inability to effectively pump blood forward causes blood to back up into the lungs, leading to fluid accumulation. This fluid accumulation results in pulmonary congestion, manifesting as shortness of breath or difficulty breathing. Peripheral edema (choice A) is more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure, where fluid accumulates in the extremities. Jugular vein distention (choice B) is a sign of increased central venous pressure and is more indicative of right-sided heart failure. Weight gain (choice D) can be a general symptom of heart failure due to fluid retention, but shortness of breath is specifically related to left-sided heart failure.
3. A client is being treated for heart failure. What should the nurse monitor to evaluate treatment effectiveness?
- A. Daily weight
- B. Electrolyte levels
- C. Urine output
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Monitoring daily weight, electrolyte levels, and urine output is crucial in evaluating treatment effectiveness for heart failure. Daily weight monitoring helps assess fluid retention or loss, changes in electrolyte levels can indicate imbalances affecting heart function, and urine output monitoring provides insights into kidney function and fluid balance. Therefore, all options are essential components in assessing the patient's fluid status and response to treatment, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually as they only represent partial aspects of monitoring heart failure treatment effectiveness.
4. A client reports feeling anxious and having trouble sleeping lately. What non-pharmacological intervention should the nurse suggest first?
- A. Starting an exercise program
- B. Keeping a sleep diary
- C. Practicing relaxation techniques before bed
- D. Using sleep-inducing medications at night
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct non-pharmacological intervention the nurse should suggest first for a client experiencing anxiety and sleep issues is practicing relaxation techniques before bed. Relaxation techniques like deep breathing, progressive muscle relaxation, or mindfulness meditation can help reduce anxiety levels and promote better sleep naturally. Starting an exercise program (Choice A) can be beneficial but may not provide immediate relief for anxiety and sleep problems. Keeping a sleep diary (Choice B) can help identify patterns but does not directly address anxiety. Using sleep-inducing medications (Choice D) should be considered only after non-pharmacological interventions have been tried.
5. A client comes to the antepartal clinic and tells the nurse that she is 6 weeks pregnant. Which sign is she most likely to report?
- A. Decreased sexual libido
- B. Amenorrhea
- C. Quickening
- D. Nocturia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Amenorrhea is the absence of menstrual periods and is a common early sign of pregnancy, typically reported by a client who is 6 weeks pregnant. Decreased sexual libido (Choice A) may or may not be experienced in early pregnancy, but it is not as specific as amenorrhea. Quickening (Choice C) refers to fetal movements felt by the mother, which usually occurs around 18-20 weeks of pregnancy, not at 6 weeks. Nocturia (Choice D) is waking up at night to urinate and is not typically associated with early pregnancy.
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