Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a first-day postpartum client. Which finding is most indicative of a postpartum infection?

• A. Oral temperature of 100.2°F (37.9°C)
• B. Blood pressure of 122/74 mmHg
• C. Moderate amount of foul-smelling lochia
• D. White blood count of 19,000/mm³ (19x10^9/L SI units)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A foul-smelling lochia is indicative of a postpartum infection, such as endometritis. Foul-smelling lochia suggests the presence of infection due to the breakdown of tissue by bacteria, leading to the malodor. An oral temperature elevation and an elevated white blood cell count are nonspecific and can be present in various conditions other than postpartum infections, making them less indicative. A blood pressure within normal limits is not typically associated with postpartum infections.

2. A premature infant weighing 1,200 grams at birth receives a prescription for beractant (Survanta) 120 mg endotracheal now and q6 hr for 24 hr. The recommended dose for beractant is 100 mg/kg birth weight per dose. Single-use vials of Survanta are labeled 100 mg/4 ml. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Give 4.8 ml q6 hr
• B. Notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too high
• C. Notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too low
• D. Give 1.2 ml q6 hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to give 4.8 ml q6 hr. To calculate the dose, you divide the prescribed dose of 120 mg by the concentration of Survanta, which is 100 mg per 4 ml. This results in 4.8 ml per dose, as 120 mg ÷ 100 mg/4 ml = 4.8 ml. Option B suggesting to notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too high is incorrect because the calculated dose of 4.8 ml is based on the recommended dose of 100 mg/kg birth weight. Option C suggesting to notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too low is incorrect as the calculated dose is based on the correct dosage calculation. Option D suggesting to give 1.2 ml q6 hr is incorrect because it doesn't align with the correct calculation.

3. The nurse is assigned to care for a client diagnosed with psoriasis. What behavior by the nurse addresses this client's psychosocial need for acceptance?

• A. Wearing gloves when providing care to the client
• B. Encouraging the client to join a support group
• C. Shaking hands with the client during an introduction
• D. Allowing the client to express their feelings openly

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to join a support group is the best option to address the client's psychosocial need for acceptance. Support groups provide a sense of belonging, understanding, and acceptance from peers who share similar experiences. This helps the client feel accepted despite their condition. Wearing gloves when providing care, shaking hands during an introduction, and allowing the client to express feelings openly are important but do not directly address the client's need for acceptance.

4. Which type of Leukocyte is involved with allergic responses and the destruction of parasitic worms?

• A. Neutrophils
• B. Lymphocytes
• C. Eosinophils
• D. Monocytes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Eosinophils are the correct answer. Eosinophils are specialized white blood cells that play a crucial role in allergic responses and combating parasitic infections. They release substances to destroy parasites and modulate allergic reactions. Neutrophils (Choice A) are mainly involved in fighting bacterial infections. Lymphocytes (Choice B) play a key role in the immune response, including antibody production, but are not primarily responsible for combating parasites or allergic responses. Monocytes (Choice D) are involved in immune defense, differentiating into macrophages or dendritic cells, but they are not mainly associated with allergic responses or parasitic worm destruction.

5. The nurse is assigned to care for four surgical clients. After receiving report, which client should the nurse see first?

• A. An older client receiving packed RBCs on the third day postoperatively for colon resection
• B. An older client with continuous bladder irrigation who is 2 days postoperatively for bladder surgery
• C. An adult one day postoperatively from laparoscopic cholecystectomy requesting pain medication
• D. An adult in Buck’s traction, scheduled for hip arthroplasty within the next 12 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client with continuous bladder irrigation post-bladder surgery is at risk for complications like infection or bleeding. This client requires immediate attention to assess for any signs of complications such as urinary retention, hemorrhage, or infection. Choices A, C, and D have less urgent needs compared to a client with continuous bladder irrigation, which requires priority assessment.

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