HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Quizlet
1. A client receives a prescription for acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) 1.4 grams per nasogastric tube q4 hours. Acetylcysteine is available as a 10% solution (10 grams/100ml). How many ml of the 10% solution should the nurse administer per dose?
- A. 7
- B. 10
- C. 14
- D. 1.4 grams of acetylcysteine is equivalent to 14 ml of a 10% solution.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To determine the amount of the 10% acetylcysteine solution to administer, convert the 1.4 grams to milligrams (1.4 grams = 1400 mg). Then, as the 10% solution contains 10 grams (10,000 mg) per 100 ml, it means there are 1000 mg of acetylcysteine in every 10 ml of the solution (10,000 mg / 100 ml = 100 mg/ml). Therefore, to administer 1400 mg (1.4 grams) of acetylcysteine, the nurse should give 14 ml of the 10% solution. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not accurately convert the amount of acetylcysteine to the corresponding volume of the 10% solution.
2. What action should the nurse take after a client produces the first of a series of sputum samples for cytology?
- A. Ensure the client remains NPO until all samples are collected
- B. Transport the sputum container to the laboratory in a biohazard bag
- C. Discard the initial sample and document the time it was obtained
- D. Document the time the client last ate or drank on the laboratory slip
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take after a client produces the first of a series of sputum samples for cytology is to transport the sputum container to the laboratory in a biohazard bag. This is important to ensure proper handling and prevent contamination of the sample. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to keep the client NPO until all samples are collected. Choice C is incorrect as the initial sample should not be discarded but rather transported to the laboratory. Choice D is also incorrect as documenting the time the client last ate or drank is not directly relevant to the immediate action needed for the sputum sample.
3. A nurse who works in the nursery is attending the vaginal delivery of a term infant. What action should the nurse complete before leaving the delivery room?
- A. Obtain the infant's vital signs.
- B. Observe the infant latching onto the breast.
- C. Administer a vitamin K injection.
- D. Place the ID bands on the infant and mother.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Placing ID bands on the infant and mother is crucial to ensure correct identification and prevent mix-ups. This step is essential for maintaining proper identification of the newborn and the mother, facilitating safe care delivery. Before leaving the delivery room, ensuring proper identification is a priority to prevent any errors. Obtaining the infant's vital signs may be important but does not take precedence over ensuring correct identification. Observing the infant latching onto the breast is crucial for breastfeeding initiation but can be done after proper identification. Administering a vitamin K injection is also important but should not delay the immediate identification process.
4. A female client has been taking a high dose of prednisone, a corticosteroid, for several months. After stopping the medication abruptly, the client reports feeling very tired. Which nursing intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Measure vital signs
- B. Auscultate breath sounds
- C. Palpate the abdomen
- D. Observe the skin for bruising
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Discontinuing prednisone abruptly can lead to adrenal insufficiency, which may result in symptoms such as fatigue. Monitoring vital signs is crucial in this situation to assess for potential complications like hypotension, which can be a sign of adrenal insufficiency. Auscultating breath sounds (choice B) is important but not the priority when considering the risk of adrenal insufficiency. Palpating the abdomen (choice C) and observing the skin for bruising (choice D) are not directly related to the potential complications of abruptly stopping prednisone.
5. A client who received multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse’s decision to hold the client’s scheduled antihypertensive medication?
- A. Increased urinary clearance of the multiple medications has led to diuresis and lowered the blood pressure.
- B. The antagonistic interaction among the various blood pressure medications has reduced their effectiveness.
- C. The additive effect of multiple medications has caused the blood pressure to drop too low.
- D. The synergistic effect of the multiple medications has resulted in drug toxicity and resulting hypotension.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a client experiences syncope due to a significant drop in blood pressure after receiving multiple antihypertensive medications, the additive effect of these medications can cause the blood pressure to drop excessively. This additive effect can lead to hypotension, which is why the nurse decided to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medication. Choices A, B, and D provide incorrect rationales. Choice A mentions diuresis, which is not directly related to the drop in blood pressure due to additive medication effects. Choice B refers to an antagonistic interaction reducing effectiveness, which is not applicable in this scenario. Choice D talks about a synergistic effect leading to drug toxicity, which is not the cause of the sudden drop in blood pressure observed in the client.
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