HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2022
1. A new mother asks the nurse if the newborn infant has an infection because the healthcare provider prescribed a blood test called the TORCH screen test. Which response should the nurse offer to the mother's inquiry?
- A. Rising titers identify the etiology of certain neuro-sensory birth defects
- B. The screen determines the risk for inherited anomalies in the newborn
- C. The test identifies the correct antibiotic to give the newborn for an infection
- D. Exposure to infections that can cross the placenta cause a positive antibody titer
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The TORCH screen test is used to detect infections that can affect the newborn by showing if there was exposure to these infections. Choice A is incorrect because the TORCH screen test is not specifically for identifying the etiology of neuro-sensory birth defects. Choice B is incorrect because the test does not determine the risk for inherited anomalies. Choice C is incorrect because the test is not used to identify the correct antibiotic for an infection, but rather to detect infections that may have affected the newborn.
2. A client is admitted with pyelonephritis, and cultures reveal an Escherichia coli infection. The client is allergic to penicillins, and the healthcare provider prescribed vancomycin IV. The nurse should plan to carefully monitor the client for which finding during IV administration?
- A. Tissue sloughing upon extravasation
- B. Elevated blood pressure and heart rate
- C. Tinnitus and vertigo
- D. Erythema of the face, neck, and chest
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tinnitus and vertigo. Vancomycin can cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity, leading to symptoms like tinnitus and vertigo. Monitoring for these adverse effects is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because tissue sloughing, elevated blood pressure and heart rate, and erythema of the face, neck, and chest are not typically associated with vancomycin administration. Therefore, the nurse should focus on monitoring for signs of ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity such as tinnitus and vertigo.
3. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure who reports nocturia and dyspnea. The nurse identifies pulsus alternans and crackles in all lung fields. Which action is best to include in the client’s plan of care?
- A. Begin client education about positive inotropic medications.
- B. Place the client in Trendelenburg position.
- C. Prepare the client for an emergency cardiac catheterization.
- D. Monitor serum Troponin, CK, and CK-MB levels.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is exhibiting signs of left-sided heart failure, such as dyspnea, nocturia, pulsus alternans, and crackles in all lung fields. Positive inotropic medications are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure to improve cardiac contractility and output. Therefore, beginning client education about positive inotropic medications is the best action to include in the client's plan of care. Choice B is incorrect because placing the client in Trendelenburg position is not indicated in the management of left-sided heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as emergency cardiac catheterization is not typically the initial intervention for left-sided heart failure. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring serum Troponin, CK, and CK-MB levels is more pertinent to assessing for myocardial infarction rather than managing heart failure.
4. Why is it important to initiate nursing interventions that promote good nutrition, rest, exercise, and stress reduction for clients diagnosed with an HIV infection?
- A. Prevent the spread of infection to others
- B. Improve the function of the immune system
- C. Increase the ability to carry out activities of daily living
- D. Promote a feeling of general well-being
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Improve the function of the immune system.' Initiating interventions focusing on good nutrition, rest, exercise, and stress reduction aims to enhance the immune system function in clients with HIV infection. For individuals with HIV, maintaining a strong immune system is crucial in fighting the virus and preventing opportunistic infections. Choices A, C, and D are important aspects of care but are secondary to the primary goal of boosting the immune system to combat the effects of the HIV virus.
5. A client has a history of vasovagal attacks resulting in brady-dysrhythmias. Which instruction is most important to include in the teaching plan?
- A. Use stool softeners regularly
- B. Avoid electromagnetic fields
- C. Maintain a low-fat diet
- D. Do not use aspirin products
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Use stool softeners regularly.' Vasovagal attacks can be triggered by straining, and using stool softeners can help prevent such attacks. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to preventing vasovagal attacks in this context. Avoiding electromagnetic fields, maintaining a low-fat diet, or not using aspirin products are important for various health reasons but not specifically for preventing vasovagal attacks related to brady-dysrhythmias.
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