HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2022
1. A new mother asks the nurse if the newborn infant has an infection because the healthcare provider prescribed a blood test called the TORCH screen test. Which response should the nurse offer to the mother's inquiry?
- A. Rising titers identify the etiology of certain neuro-sensory birth defects
- B. The screen determines the risk for inherited anomalies in the newborn
- C. The test identifies the correct antibiotic to give the newborn for an infection
- D. Exposure to infections that can cross the placenta cause a positive antibody titer
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The TORCH screen test is used to detect infections that can affect the newborn by showing if there was exposure to these infections. Choice A is incorrect because the TORCH screen test is not specifically for identifying the etiology of neuro-sensory birth defects. Choice B is incorrect because the test does not determine the risk for inherited anomalies. Choice C is incorrect because the test is not used to identify the correct antibiotic for an infection, but rather to detect infections that may have affected the newborn.
2. While a patient is receiving beta-1b interferon every other day for multiple sclerosis, which serum laboratory test findings should the nurse monitor to assess for possible bone marrow suppression caused by the medication? (Select all that apply)
- A. Platelet count
- B. White blood cell count (WBC)
- C. Sodium and potassium
- D. Red blood cell count (RBC)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Beta-1b interferon can lead to bone marrow suppression, impacting blood cell production. Therefore, monitoring the platelet count, white blood cell count (WBC), and red blood cell count (RBC) is essential. Platelet count is a direct indicator of bone marrow function and can show early signs of bone marrow suppression. While sodium, potassium, and albumin/protein levels are important for overall health assessment, they are not directly associated with bone marrow suppression caused by the medication.
3. What action should the nurse take after a client produces the first of a series of sputum samples for cytology?
- A. Ensure the client remains NPO until all samples are collected
- B. Transport the sputum container to the laboratory in a biohazard bag
- C. Discard the initial sample and document the time it was obtained
- D. Document the time the client last ate or drank on the laboratory slip
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take after a client produces the first of a series of sputum samples for cytology is to transport the sputum container to the laboratory in a biohazard bag. This is important to ensure proper handling and prevent contamination of the sample. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to keep the client NPO until all samples are collected. Choice C is incorrect as the initial sample should not be discarded but rather transported to the laboratory. Choice D is also incorrect as documenting the time the client last ate or drank is not directly relevant to the immediate action needed for the sputum sample.
4. Two weeks following a Billroth II (gastrojejunostomy), a client develops nausea, diarrhea, and diaphoresis after every meal. When the nurse develops a teaching plan for this client, which expected outcome statement is the most relevant?
- A. Describes a schedule for antacid use in combination with other prescribed medications
- B. Selects a pattern of small meals interspersed with fluid intake
- C. Commits to engaging in a variety of stress reduction techniques
- D. Expresses a commitment to decrease nicotine intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The symptoms described are indicative of dumping syndrome, a common complication following a Billroth II procedure. Dumping syndrome presents with symptoms such as nausea, diarrhea, and diaphoresis after meals. To manage these symptoms effectively, the client should opt for small, frequent meals and avoid consuming fluids along with meals. Choice A is inaccurate because antacid use does not directly address the symptoms of dumping syndrome. Choice C is irrelevant as stress reduction techniques are not the primary intervention for dumping syndrome. Choice D is unrelated to the symptoms experienced by the client, making it an inappropriate choice.
5. While flushing the proximal port of a triple lumen central venous catheter with heparin solution, the nurse meets resistance. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Remove the cap and apply direct gentle pressure with the syringe
- B. Contact the healthcare provider regarding the need for a chest x-ray
- C. Cover the cap with tape and label the port as being obstructed
- D. Remove the catheter while applying gentle pressure at the insertion site
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When encountering resistance while flushing a central venous catheter, it is crucial to contact the healthcare provider regarding the need for a chest x-ray. This resistance may indicate a blockage within the catheter, a kink, or other issues that could compromise the integrity of the catheter or pose a risk to the patient. It is essential to assess the situation through imaging to determine the appropriate course of action. Option A is incorrect because applying direct pressure could cause damage to the catheter or dislodge any potential blockage. Option C is incorrect as labeling the port as obstructed without further assessment may delay necessary interventions. Option D is incorrect as removing the catheter without proper evaluation can lead to complications and should only be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider.
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