HESI LPN
HESI Test Bank Medical Surgical Nursing
1. The cognitive impairment is classified into four levels based on the intelligence quotient (IQ). How is a child with an IQ of 45 classified?
- A. Within the normal low range
- B. Educable
- C. Trainable
- D. Severe
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A child with an IQ of 45 is classified as 'Trainable' in the context of cognitive impairment levels. This category is determined by an IQ range of 35 to 55. Choice A ('Within the normal low range') is incorrect as an IQ of 45 falls within the range associated with the 'Trainable' level, not the 'Normal low range.' Choice B ('Educable') is incorrect because this classification typically corresponds to individuals with slightly higher IQs that allow for academic progress with support. Choice D ('Severe') is incorrect as it does not align with the IQ level of 45, which falls within the 'Trainable' category.
2. The nurse is teaching a client how to collect a sputum specimen. Which steps should the nurse instruct the client to follow when collecting sputum?
- A. Breathe deeply, followed by swallowing.
- B. Breathe deeply, followed by spitting into a cup.
- C. Breathe deeply, followed by coughing up the sputum.
- D. Breathe deeply, followed by clearing the throat.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to breathe deeply followed by coughing up the sputum. This method ensures that the specimen is collected from the lower respiratory tract and is not contaminated by saliva. Choice A (swallowing) does not result in sputum collection, while choice B (spitting into a cup) may lead to saliva contamination. Choice D (clearing the throat) is not an effective way to collect sputum as it may involve getting rid of saliva, not sputum.
3. A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24h with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackle and bounding central pulses. Vital signs: temperature 101.2°F, Heart rate 96 beats/min, Respirations 24 breaths/min, and Blood pressure 160/90 mmHg. Which interventions should the nurse implement first?
- A. Review the last administration of IV pain medication.
- B. Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen.
- C. Decrease IV fluids to keep the vein open (KVO) rate.
- D. Calculate total intake and output.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease IV fluids to the keep vein open (KVO) rate. The client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, headache, elevated CVP, crackles, bounding pulses, and increased blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids will help prevent further fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the fluid balance issue is the priority. Administering a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with the headache but does not address the underlying fluid overload. Calculating total intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the immediate issue of fluid overload and its associated symptoms.
4. A client with ulcerative colitis is experiencing frequent diarrhea. What is the priority nursing diagnosis?
- A. Risk for impaired skin integrity
- B. Fluid volume deficit
- C. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements
- D. Activity intolerance
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluid volume deficit. In a client with ulcerative colitis experiencing frequent diarrhea, the priority nursing diagnosis is addressing the potential fluid volume deficit due to significant fluid loss. Maintaining adequate hydration is crucial to prevent complications associated with dehydration. While choices A, C, and D can also be concerns for a client with ulcerative colitis, addressing fluid volume deficit takes precedence as it directly impacts the client's physiological stability and can lead to serious complications if not managed promptly.
5. The parents of a child who has been diagnosed with sickle cell anemia ask why their child experiences pain. What is the most likely cause of the pain?
- A. Inflammation of the vessels
- B. Obstructed blood flow
- C. Overhydration
- D. Stress-related headaches
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Obstructed blood flow. In sickle cell anemia, the sickle-shaped red blood cells can clump together, obstructing blood flow in the vessels. This obstruction leads to tissue hypoxia (lack of oxygen) and necrosis, causing pain. Choice A, inflammation of the vessels, is not the primary cause of pain in sickle cell anemia. Choice C, overhydration, is unrelated to the pathophysiology of sickle cell anemia. Choice D, stress-related headaches, is not a characteristic symptom of sickle cell anemia.
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