Nursing Elites

1. The cognitive impairment is classified into four levels based on the intelligence quotient (IQ). How is a child with an IQ of 45 classified?

• A. Within the normal low range
• B. Educable
• C. Trainable
• D. Severe

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A child with an IQ of 45 is classified as 'Trainable' in the context of cognitive impairment levels. This category is determined by an IQ range of 35 to 55. Choice A ('Within the normal low range') is incorrect as an IQ of 45 falls within the range associated with the 'Trainable' level, not the 'Normal low range.' Choice B ('Educable') is incorrect because this classification typically corresponds to individuals with slightly higher IQs that allow for academic progress with support. Choice D ('Severe') is incorrect as it does not align with the IQ level of 45, which falls within the 'Trainable' category.

2. Which statement correctly explains the etiology of Down syndrome?

• A. There is an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.
• B. There is a missing chromosome on the 21st pair.
• C. There are two pairs of the 21st chromosome.
• D. The 21st chromosome pair is missing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'There is an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.' Down syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21, known as trisomy 21. This additional genetic material leads to the characteristics associated with Down syndrome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Down syndrome is not due to a missing chromosome or having two pairs of the 21st chromosome; it results from the presence of an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.

3. What most influences the severity of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?

• A. Poor cough and gag reflex
• B. The gestational age at birth
• C. Administering high concentrations of oxygen
• D. The sex of the infant

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The gestational age at birth most influences the severity of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). RDS is caused by a deficiency of surfactant and it occurs almost exclusively in preterm, low-birth weight infants. Therefore, the gestational age at birth is a key factor in determining the likelihood and severity of RDS. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the primary factor influencing the severity of RDS.

4. In the change of shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

• A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
• B. Intact skin with non-blanchable redness.
• C. Full-thickness tissue loss with visible fat.
• D. Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.' Stage 2 pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss and typically appear as shallow open ulcers with a red-pink wound bed. Choice B describes a stage 1 ulcer, where the skin is intact but shows non-blanchable redness. Choice C describes a stage 3 ulcer, with full-thickness tissue loss exposing fat. Choice D is characteristic of a stage 4 ulcer, where there is full-thickness tissue loss exposing bone, tendon, or muscle. Therefore, option A best fits the description of a stage 2 pressure ulcer.

5. Based on this strip, what is the correct interpretation of this rhythm?

• A. Atrial fibrillation.
• B. Premature atrial fibrillation.
• C. AV block.
• D. Ventricular tachycardia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct interpretation of the rhythm strip is atrial fibrillation. This arrhythmia is characterized by an irregular heartbeat and the absence of distinct P waves. Choice B, premature atrial fibrillation, is incorrect as there is no indication of premature beats in the strip. Choice C, AV block, is also incorrect as there is no evidence of conduction delays between the atria and ventricles. Choice D, ventricular tachycardia, is not supported by the absence of wide QRS complexes typically seen in this arrhythmia.

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