Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving a secondary infusion of erythromycin 1 gram in 100 mL dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to be infused in 45 minutes. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?

• A. 100 mL/hour.
• B. 125 mL/hour.
• C. 133 mL/hour.
• D. 150 mL/hour.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To infuse 100 mL in 45 minutes, the infusion rate should be set to 133 mL/hour (100 mL / 0.75 hours). This calculation is obtained by dividing the total volume to be infused by the total time for infusion (100 mL / 0.75 hours = 133 mL/hour). Therefore, choice C is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately calculate the infusion rate required to deliver the medication within the specified time frame.

2. A client who experienced partial-thickness burns with over 50% body surface area (BSA) 2 weeks ago suddenly becomes restless and agitated.

• A. Increase the room temperature.
• B. Assess the oxygen saturation.
• C. Continue to monitor vital signs.
• D. Notify the rapid response team.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a burn patient with sudden restlessness and agitation, it is crucial to consider hypoxia or other critical conditions. As such, notifying the rapid response team is the most appropriate action to ensure prompt assessment and intervention. Increasing room temperature (Choice A) is not the priority in this scenario. While monitoring vital signs (Choice C) is important, the sudden change in behavior warrants immediate action. Assessing oxygen saturation (Choice B) is a step in the right direction, but involving the rapid response team ensures a comprehensive evaluation and timely management of the patient's condition.

3. What should the nurse assess in an infant who has been diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?

• A. A history of diarrhea following each feeding
• B. Gastric pain evidenced by vigorous crying
• C. Poor appetite due to a poor sucking reflex
• D. An olive-shaped mass right of the midline

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. In hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, a key assessment finding is an olive-shaped mass in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen, to the right of the midline. This mass is palpable and represents the hypertrophied pyloric muscle. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because although they may be present in infants with feeding problems, the definitive assessment for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is the presence of an olive-shaped mass on the right side of the abdomen, not a history of diarrhea, gastric pain, or poor appetite.

4. The nurse is evaluating teaching about drug therapy to treat gout. Which statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of the use of allopurinol to treat Gout?

• A. I need to take the prescribed amount of the drug to get rid of my gout.
• B. I need to take this drug every day to keep from having any flare-ups.
• C. I should take this drug when I have gout attacks to reduce symptoms.
• D. The pain and swelling can be controlled by taking this drug every day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Taking allopurinol every day helps to prevent gout flare-ups by reducing uric acid levels.

5. What is the most common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta?

• A. Clubbing of the digits
• B. Upper extremity hypertension
• C. Pedal edema and portal congestion
• D. Loud systolic ejection murmur

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Upper extremity hypertension. Coarctation of the aorta leads to increased blood pressure in the upper extremities. The pressure in the arms is typically 20 mm Hg higher than in the legs. Choice A, clubbing of the digits, is not a common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta. Choice C, pedal edema, and portal congestion are more suggestive of conditions like heart failure rather than coarctation of the aorta. Choice D, loud systolic ejection murmur, can be heard in conditions like aortic stenosis, but it is not the most common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta.

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