Nursing Elites

1. The client with schizophrenia believes the news commentator is her lover and speaks to her. What is the best response for the nurse to make?

• A. What do you believe the news commentator said to you?
• B. Let's switch to a different news channel.
• C. Is the news commentator planning to harm you or others?
• D. The news commentator is not communicating with you.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to ask the client what she believes the news commentator said, as it helps the nurse assess the client's perception and delve into her delusions without being confrontational. Choice B is not helpful in addressing the client's delusions. Choice C jumps to conclusions about potential harm without assessing the client's beliefs. Choice D is dismissive and does not address the client's reality.

2. The LPN/LVN should include which interventions in the plan of care for a severely depressed client with neurovegetative symptoms? (select one that does not apply.)

• A. Permit rest periods as needed.
• B. Speaking slowly and simply.
• C. Place the client on suicide precautions.
• D. Limit and discourage food and fluid intake.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a severely depressed client with neurovegetative symptoms, the care plan should include rest, simple communication, suicide precautions, monitoring intake, and encouraging mild exercise. Limiting and discouraging food and fluid intake is not appropriate as proper nutrition and hydration are essential for overall well-being. This choice could lead to further complications and is not recommended in the care of a depressed client.

3. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol). The LPN/LVN observes the client pacing in the hallway and appearing anxious. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Ask the client to sit down and relax.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of antipsychotic medication.
• C. Encourage the client to talk about what is making him anxious.
• D. Monitor the client for adverse reactions to the medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of antipsychotic medication is the first action the nurse should take to manage symptoms of anxiety in a client being treated with haloperidol. The priority is to address the client's escalating anxiety and pacing behavior, which can be managed effectively by providing additional antipsychotic medication. Asking the client to sit down and relax (Choice A) may not be effective if the anxiety is due to inadequate medication levels. Encouraging the client to talk about what is making him anxious (Choice C) may not be beneficial in this acute situation and can be considered after addressing the immediate need for symptom management. Monitoring for adverse reactions (Choice D) is important but is not the first action to take when the client is showing signs of increasing anxiety and agitation.

4. A male client turns over a table in the dayroom of a psychiatric unit and threatens to throw a chair at another client. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Calmly approach the client and remove the chair from the client.
• B. Obtain staff assistance to help diffuse the escalating situation.
• C. Offer feedback about the client's behavior.
• D. Summon the hospital security guards as a 'show of force.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a situation where a client is displaying aggressive behavior, the most important action for the nurse to implement is to obtain staff assistance to help diffuse the escalating situation. This approach ensures the safety of all individuals involved and prevents the situation from escalating further. Calmly approaching the client and removing the chair directly could agitate the client further and pose a risk to the nurse. Offering feedback about the client's behavior may not address the immediate safety concerns. Summoning hospital security guards as a 'show of force' should be a last resort after other de-escalation attempts have failed, as it may further provoke the client.

5. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) spends hours each day washing their hands. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate initially?

• A. Allow the client to continue the behavior to reduce anxiety.
• B. Set strict limits on the time allowed for handwashing.
• C. Distract the client with other activities.
• D. Encourage the client to participate in a support group.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Initially, it is most appropriate to allow the client to continue the behavior to reduce anxiety (A). For clients with OCD, abruptly stopping compulsive behaviors can lead to increased anxiety and distress. Setting strict limits (B) may exacerbate anxiety at first. Distraction with other activities (C) may not address the underlying issue effectively. While support groups (D) can be beneficial, they are typically introduced after establishing trust and gradually working on reducing compulsive behaviors.

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