Nursing Elites

1. When a client with major depressive disorder expresses feelings of worthlessness and hopelessness, what is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to engage in recreational activities.
• B. Suggest the client keep a journal of their thoughts and feelings.
• C. Assess the client for suicidal ideation.
• D. Provide the client with positive affirmations.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the client for suicidal ideation. When a client expresses feelings of worthlessness and hopelessness, it is crucial to evaluate the risk of self-harm. Encouraging recreational activities (choice A) or suggesting journaling (choice B) may be helpful interventions but assessing for suicidal ideation takes precedence due to the immediate risk of harm. Providing positive affirmations (choice D) is not the priority when safety is a concern.

2. A female client presents to the emergency center with confusion, emotional numbness, and expresses to the nurse a feeling of disbelief that she was raped. The nurse determines the client is in the acute phase of rape-trauma syndrome. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Secure samples of vaginal hair combings.
• B. Offer prophylactic antibiotic medication.
• C. Explain the rape protocol to the client.
• D. Implement crisis intervention counseling.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases of rape-trauma syndrome, it is crucial to provide clear information about what to expect during the examination and treatment. This can help the client regain a sense of control and reduce anxiety. Explaining the rape protocol to the client should be the first action to implement. Option A is not the priority at this stage as the immediate focus is on addressing the client's emotional needs and providing support. Option B is not the first action unless medically indicated. Option D, crisis intervention counseling, is important but should come after providing essential information and support to the client.

3. A client with depression is started on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). What should the LPN/LVN include in the teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication with food to avoid nausea.
• B. You may start feeling better within 1 to 2 weeks.
• C. The medication may take 4 to 6 weeks to become fully effective.
• D. You may experience side effects such as dry mouth or dizziness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Teaching the client that the medication may take 4 to 6 weeks to become fully effective is crucial as it helps set realistic expectations. While choice A is important to reduce nausea, it is not the most critical information to provide initially. Choice B is incorrect as improvement usually occurs after several weeks of treatment, not within 1 to 2 weeks. Choice D is also relevant, but informing about the full effectiveness of the medication is more important for long-term adherence.

4. The nurse observes a client who is admitted to the mental health unit and identifies that the client is talking continuously, using words that rhyme but that have no context or relationship with one topic to the next in the conversation. This client's behavior and thought processes are consistent with which syndrome?

• A. Dementia
• B. Depression
• C. Schizophrenia
• D. Chronic brain syndrome

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is demonstrating symptoms of schizophrenia, such as disorganized speech that may include word salad (a type of communication that mixes real and imaginary words in no logical order), incoherent speech, and clanging (rhyming). Dementia (Choice A) is characterized by memory loss and cognitive decline, not by disorganized speech. Depression (Choice B) typically presents with persistent feelings of sadness and loss of interest, not disorganized speech. Chronic brain syndrome (Choice D) is a vague term and does not specifically describe the symptoms mentioned in the scenario.

5. When caring for a client who has overdosed on PCP, the nurse should be especially cautious about which of the following client behaviors?

• A. Visual hallucinations
• B. Violent behavior
• C. Bizarre behavior
• D. Loud screaming

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Violent behavior.' When a client has overdosed on PCP, the nurse should be particularly cautious about the manifestation of violent behavior. PCP overdose can lead to aggressive and unpredictable actions, posing a significant risk to both the client and healthcare providers. Visual hallucinations (choice A), bizarre behavior (choice C), and loud screaming (choice D) can also occur with PCP overdose, but the primary concern should be the potential for violent behavior, making it the most critical behavior to monitor and manage.

Similar Questions