Nursing Elites

1. When a client with major depressive disorder expresses feelings of worthlessness and hopelessness, what is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to engage in recreational activities.
• B. Suggest the client keep a journal of their thoughts and feelings.
• C. Assess the client for suicidal ideation.
• D. Provide the client with positive affirmations.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the client for suicidal ideation. When a client expresses feelings of worthlessness and hopelessness, it is crucial to evaluate the risk of self-harm. Encouraging recreational activities (choice A) or suggesting journaling (choice B) may be helpful interventions but assessing for suicidal ideation takes precedence due to the immediate risk of harm. Providing positive affirmations (choice D) is not the priority when safety is a concern.

2. A client who is being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness. What action should the LPN/LVN take?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately and prepare for administration of an antidote.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider of the symptoms prior to the next administration of the drug.
• C. Record the symptoms as normal side effects and continue administration of the prescribed dosage.
• D. Hold the medication and refuse to administer additional amounts of the drug.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops symptoms like diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness, it could indicate lithium toxicity. The appropriate action for the LPN/LVN is to notify the healthcare provider immediately of these symptoms before the next administration of the drug. This prompt communication is crucial to ensure that the healthcare provider can assess the situation, adjust the treatment plan if necessary, and prevent potential complications associated with lithium toxicity. Option A is incorrect because administering an antidote should be based on the healthcare provider's assessment. Option C is incorrect as these symptoms are not normal side effects and could indicate a serious issue. Option D is incorrect because refusing to administer the drug without consulting the healthcare provider could delay necessary interventions.

3. When a client with schizophrenia is being discharged on antipsychotic medication, what is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?

• A. Stop the medication if you start feeling better.
• B. Be aware of the potential for weight gain with this medication.
• C. Report any unusual muscle movements immediately.
• D. You can drive as soon as you feel ready.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to report any unusual muscle movements immediately. These movements may indicate extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) or tardive dyskinesia, which are serious side effects of antipsychotic medications that require immediate attention. Choice A is incorrect because stopping the medication without medical advice can lead to a relapse of symptoms. Choice B is important but not as critical as monitoring for EPS. Choice D is incorrect because driving readiness is not directly related to antipsychotic medication instructions.

4. An LPN/LVN is reviewing the assessment data of a client admitted to the mental health unit. The nurse notes that the admission nurse documented that the client is experiencing anxiety as a result of a situational crisis. The nurse determines that this type of crisis is caused by:

• A. Witnessing a murder
• B. The death of a loved one
• C. A fire that destroyed the client's home
• D. A recent rape episode experienced by the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The death of a loved one.' A situational crisis, like the death of a loved one, can lead to anxiety due to a significant change or loss in the person's life. Choices A, C, and D involve traumatic events, but a situational crisis typically refers to life events that disrupt an individual's normal pattern of living, such as the death of a loved one.

5. A female client in an acute care facility has been on antipsychotic medications for the past three days. Her psychotic behaviors have decreased and she has had no adverse reactions. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. What action should the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor her frequently.
• B. Take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately.
• C. Describe the symptoms to the charge nurse and document them in the client's record.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of her medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to initiate is to take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately. These symptoms may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications, requiring immediate medical attention. Placing the client on seizure precautions and monitoring her frequently (Choice A) is not the most appropriate action in this situation. Describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them in the client's record (Choice C) delays prompt medical intervention. Choosing not to take any action (Choice D) is dangerous as the symptoms described suggest a serious condition that needs urgent evaluation and treatment.

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