Nursing Elites

1. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing delusions. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to explore the delusions in depth.
• B. Tell the client that the delusions are not real.
• C. Explore the underlying meaning of the delusions.
• D. Distract the client from the delusions and focus on reality.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with schizophrenia experiencing delusions is to distract the client from the delusions and focus on reality. Encouraging the client to explore the delusions in depth (Choice A) may worsen the delusions. Telling the client that the delusions are not real (Choice B) can lead to confrontation and disbelief. Exploring the underlying meaning of the delusions (Choice C) may not be effective during acute episodes of delusions; hence, distracting the client and refocusing on reality is the most suitable intervention.

2. The LPN/LVN should include which interventions in the plan of care for a severely depressed client with neurovegetative symptoms? (select one that does not apply.)

• A. Permit rest periods as needed.
• B. Speaking slowly and simply.
• C. Place the client on suicide precautions.
• D. Limit and discourage food and fluid intake.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a severely depressed client with neurovegetative symptoms, the care plan should include rest, simple communication, suicide precautions, monitoring intake, and encouraging mild exercise. Limiting and discouraging food and fluid intake is not appropriate as proper nutrition and hydration are essential for overall well-being. This choice could lead to further complications and is not recommended in the care of a depressed client.

3. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a medical diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. During the admission procedure, the client looks up and states, 'No, it's not MY fault. You can't blame me. I didn't kill him, you did.' What action is best for the nurse to take?

• A. Reassure the client by telling him that his fear of the admission procedure is to be expected.
• B. Tell the client that no one is accusing him of murder and remind him that the hospital is a safe place.
• C. Assess the content of the hallucinations by asking the client what he is hearing.
• D. Ignore the behavior and make no response at all to his delusional statements.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to assess the content of the hallucinations by asking the client what he is hearing (C). Further assessment is needed to understand the nature of the client's delusions and hallucinations. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on reassuring the client about his fear, which is not addressing the underlying issue of the delusional statement. Choice B is incorrect as it argues with the client's delusion and offers false reassurance, which is not therapeutic. Choice D is incorrect as ignoring the behavior and making no response disregards the client's needs for assessment and support.

4. A nurse working on a mental health unit receives a community call from a person who is tearful and states, 'I just feel so nervous all of the time. I don't know what to do about my problems. I haven't been able to sleep at night and have hardly eaten for the past 3 or 4 days.' The nurse should initiate a referral based on which assessment?

• A. Altered thought processes.
• B. Moderate levels of anxiety.
• C. Inadequate social support.
• D. Altered health maintenance.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should initiate a referral based on moderate levels of anxiety (B) as the client reports feeling nervous all the time, sleep disturbances, poor appetite, and difficulty solving problems. These symptoms are indicative of significant anxiety levels. The client does not mention symptoms related to altered thought processes (A) or inadequate social support (C). There is insufficient information to suggest altered health maintenance (D) as a reason for referral in this scenario.

5. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an SSRI. After one week, the client reports feeling no improvement in mood. What is the best response by the RN?

• A. It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.
• B. We may need to switch to a different medication.
• C. You should feel better by now, let's discuss this with your doctor.
• D. Maybe you are not taking the medication as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.' This response is appropriate because SSRI and other antidepressants often require several weeks to exhibit improvement in mood. It is crucial to educate the client about this delay to manage expectations and promote adherence to the medication regimen. Choice B is incorrect as switching medications prematurely is not typically recommended after just one week. Choice C is incorrect because it sets unrealistic expectations for immediate improvement. Choice D is incorrect as it may come across as accusatory and should not be the initial response.

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