HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Exam
1. A client with schizophrenia who has been stabilized on medication is being discharged from the hospital. What discharge teaching is most important for the LPN/LVN to reinforce?
- A. The importance of adhering to the prescribed medication regimen.
- B. How to recognize early signs of relapse.
- C. The need to continue follow-up appointments with the healthcare provider.
- D. The importance of maintaining a healthy lifestyle, including proper diet and exercise.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Reinforcing the importance of adhering to the prescribed medication regimen is crucial for preventing relapse in clients with schizophrenia. Compliance with medication is essential in managing the symptoms and preventing a worsening of the condition. Choice B, recognizing early signs of relapse, is important but secondary to ensuring medication adherence. Choice C, follow-up appointments, is also important but not as critical as medication compliance immediately post-discharge. Choice D, maintaining a healthy lifestyle, is beneficial for overall health but is not as directly linked to preventing relapse in schizophrenia as medication adherence.
2. A homeless person who is in the manic phase of bipolar disorder is admitted to the mental health unit. Which laboratory finding obtained on admission is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Decreased thyroid stimulating hormone level
- B. Elevated liver function profile
- C. Increased white blood cell count
- D. Decreased hematocrit and hemoglobin levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased thyroid stimulating hormone level. Hyperthyroidism causes an increased level of serum thyroid hormones (T3 and T4), which inhibit the release of TSH. In this case, a decreased TSH level can indicate hyperthyroidism, which can present with manic behavior. Elevated liver function profile (B) is not directly related to the manic phase of bipolar disorder. Increased white blood cell count (C) typically indicates an infection or inflammation, not directly related to the manic phase. Decreased hematocrit and hemoglobin levels (D) may suggest anemia but are not as crucial in the context of a manic phase of bipolar disorder.
3. Which action should the nurse implement first for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal?
- A. Apply vest or extremity restraints.
- B. Give an alpha-adrenergic blocker.
- C. Provide a diet high in protein and calories.
- D. Prepare the environment to prevent self-injury.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal is to prepare the environment to prevent self-injury. Clients undergoing alcohol withdrawal are at risk of seizures and other symptoms that may lead to self-harm. By ensuring a safe environment, the nurse can mitigate the risk of injury. Applying restraints (Choice A) should only be considered if less restrictive measures fail, as restraints can agitate the client further. Giving an alpha-adrenergic blocker (Choice B) may be part of the treatment plan for alcohol withdrawal but is not the first action to take. Providing a diet high in protein and calories (Choice C) is important for overall health but is not the priority when addressing immediate safety concerns.
4. A woman arrives in the Emergency Center and tells the nurse she thinks she has been raped. The client is sobbing and expresses disbelief that a rape could happen because the man is her best friend. After acknowledging the client's fear and anxiety, how should the nurse respond?
- A. I would be very upset and mad if my best friend did that to me.
- B. You must feel betrayed, but maybe you might have led him on?
- C. Rape is not limited to strangers and frequently occurs by someone who is known to the victim.
- D. This does not sound like rape. Did you change your mind about having sex after the fact?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A victim of date rape or acquaintance rape is less prone to recognize what is happening because the incident usually involves persons who know each other and the dynamics are different than rape by a stranger. Choice (C) provides confrontation for the client's denial because the victim frequently knows and trusts the perpetrator. Nurses should not express personal feelings (Choice A) when dealing with victims. Choice B, suggesting that the client led on the rapist, indicates that the sexual assault was somehow the victim's fault. Choice D is judgmental and does not display compassion or establish trust between the nurse and the client.
5. A nurse is assessing a client with dementia who is showing signs of increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon. What is the most likely explanation for the client's symptoms?
- A. Anxiety
- B. Depression
- C. Sun-downing syndrome
- D. Medication side effects
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sun-downing syndrome. Sun-downing syndrome is a phenomenon commonly seen in individuals with dementia, where they exhibit increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon or evening. This pattern of behavior is believed to be linked to disruptions in the circadian rhythm and can be triggered by factors such as fatigue, low lighting, or increased shadows during the evening. Choices A and B, anxiety and depression, may be comorbid conditions in individuals with dementia but are not the primary explanation for the symptoms described. While medication side effects (Choice D) should always be considered in a client with dementia, given the time-specific nature of the symptoms, sun-downing syndrome is the most likely explanation in this case.
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