HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Questions
1. What does the concept of 'health equity' refer to?
- A. Equal access to healthcare for all individuals
- B. Providing the same treatments to everyone
- C. Eliminating health disparities among different population groups
- D. Focusing on the healthcare needs of the wealthy
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The concept of health equity refers to eliminating health disparities among different population groups. This means ensuring that everyone has a fair and just opportunity to be as healthy as possible, regardless of social determinants such as race, ethnicity, income, or geographic location. Choice A is incorrect because health equity goes beyond just access to healthcare and focuses on achieving health equality. Choice B is incorrect as health equity considers individual needs rather than providing the same treatments to everyone. Choice D is incorrect as health equity aims to address disparities and inequalities, not just focus on the healthcare needs of the wealthy.
2. The nurse is assigned to a client with Parkinson's disease. Which findings would the nurse anticipate?
- A. Non-intention tremors and urgency with voiding
- B. Echolalia and a shuffling gait
- C. Muscle spasm and a bent-over posture
- D. Intention tremor and jerky movement of the elbows
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Echolalia (repeating others' words) and a shuffling gait are common symptoms of Parkinson's disease. These symptoms result from the degeneration of the basal ganglia in the brain that controls movement and speech. Choice A is incorrect because non-intention tremors are not typically associated with Parkinson's disease. Choice C is incorrect as muscle spasm and a bent-over posture are not classic manifestations of Parkinson's disease. Choice D is incorrect since intention tremors and jerky movement of the elbows are not characteristic of Parkinson's disease.
3. The appropriate order of steps in active management of the third stage of labor includes:
- A. Cord clamping and cutting, controlled cord traction, ergometrine administration, and inspection to ensure the placenta is intact.
- B. Intravenous oxytocin, cord clamping and cutting, and fundal massage.
- C. Intramuscular injection of oxytocin, controlled cord traction with counter traction to the uterus, and uterine massage.
- D. Controlled cord traction, fundal massage, and oxytocin.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct sequence of steps in active management of the third stage of labor includes intramuscular injection of oxytocin to prevent postpartum hemorrhage, controlled cord traction with counter traction to the uterus to facilitate placental delivery, and uterine massage to aid in uterine contraction and prevent excessive bleeding. Choice A is incorrect because ergometrine administration is not routinely recommended in active management. Choice B is incorrect as intravenous oxytocin is not the preferred route of administration. Choice D is incorrect as the order of steps is not accurate.
4. The nurse is caring for a child who has just returned from surgery following a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
- A. Offer ice chips every 2 hours
- B. Place the child in a semi-Fowler's position
- C. Encourage the child to drink from a cup
- D. Observe swallowing patterns
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Observing swallowing patterns is crucial post-tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy to detect signs of bleeding. Offering ice chips instead of ice cream helps prevent throat irritation. Placing the child in a semi-Fowler's position promotes airway patency and reduces the risk of aspiration. Encouraging the child to drink from a cup instead of a straw minimizes the risk of dislodging the surgical site.
5. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following laboratory values?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Serum potassium
- C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- D. White blood cell count (WBC)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, including factors II, VII, IX, and X. Monitoring the PT helps ensure that the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range to prevent complications such as recurrent DVT or excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because serum potassium, blood urea nitrogen, and white blood cell count are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with a history of DVT.
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