HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice
1. Several months after a foot injury, an adult woman is diagnosed with neuropathic pain. The client describes the pain as severe and burning and is unable to put weight on her foot. She asks the nurse when the pain will 'finally go away.' How should the nurse respond?
- A. Explain that healing from the injury can take many months.
- B. Assist the client in developing a goal of managing the pain.
- C. Encourage the client to verbalize her fears about the pain.
- D. Complete an assessment of the client’s functional ability.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Assist the client in developing a goal of managing the pain.' In cases of chronic neuropathic pain, complete resolution is often not achievable. Therefore, the most appropriate approach is to help the client develop strategies to manage the pain effectively. Choice A is incorrect because it may give false hope of immediate resolution, which is unlikely with neuropathic pain. Choice C is incorrect as it does not directly address the client's need for pain management. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on functional ability assessment, which is not the priority when addressing the client's pain concerns.
2. Following a thyroidectomy, a client experiences tetany. The nurse should expect to administer which intravenous medication?
- A. Sodium iodide solution
- B. Levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid)
- C. Calcium gluconate
- D. Propranolol (Inderal)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Following a thyroidectomy, tetany can occur due to hypoparathyroidism, leading to low calcium levels. Therefore, the nurse should administer calcium gluconate intravenously to raise the calcium levels. Choice A, Sodium iodide solution, is incorrect as it is used for thyroid conditions, not for treating tetany. Choice B, Levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid), is incorrect as it is a thyroid hormone replacement and does not address low calcium levels. Choice D, Propranolol (Inderal), is incorrect as it is a beta-blocker used for conditions like hypertension and not indicated for tetany after thyroidectomy.
3. Two weeks following a Billroth II (gastrojejunostomy), a client develops nausea, diarrhea, and diaphoresis after every meal. When the nurse develops a teaching plan for this client, which expected outcome statement is the most relevant?
- A. Describes a schedule for antacid use in combination with other prescribed medications
- B. Selects a pattern of small meals interspersed with fluid intake
- C. Commits to engaging in a variety of stress reduction techniques
- D. Expresses a commitment to decrease nicotine intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The symptoms described are indicative of dumping syndrome, a common complication following a Billroth II procedure. Dumping syndrome presents with symptoms such as nausea, diarrhea, and diaphoresis after meals. To manage these symptoms effectively, the client should opt for small, frequent meals and avoid consuming fluids along with meals. Choice A is inaccurate because antacid use does not directly address the symptoms of dumping syndrome. Choice C is irrelevant as stress reduction techniques are not the primary intervention for dumping syndrome. Choice D is unrelated to the symptoms experienced by the client, making it an inappropriate choice.
4. While a patient is receiving beta-1b interferon every other day for multiple sclerosis, which serum laboratory test findings should the nurse monitor to assess for possible bone marrow suppression caused by the medication? (Select all that apply)
- A. Platelet count
- B. White blood cell count (WBC)
- C. Sodium and potassium
- D. Red blood cell count (RBC)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Beta-1b interferon can lead to bone marrow suppression, impacting blood cell production. Therefore, monitoring the platelet count, white blood cell count (WBC), and red blood cell count (RBC) is essential. Platelet count is a direct indicator of bone marrow function and can show early signs of bone marrow suppression. While sodium, potassium, and albumin/protein levels are important for overall health assessment, they are not directly associated with bone marrow suppression caused by the medication.
5. To evaluate the medication’s effectiveness in a client with a respiratory tract infection, which laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. White blood cell (WBC) count
- B. Sputum culture and sensitivity
- C. Droplet precautions
- D. Protective environment
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: White blood cell (WBC) count. Monitoring the WBC count helps assess the overall response to infection and the effectiveness of the antibiotic. Sputum culture and sensitivity (choice B) are also important to confirm if the antibiotic is targeting the specific pathogen. Choices C and D, droplet precautions and protective environment, are not laboratory values but rather infection control measures that do not directly evaluate the medication's effectiveness in treating the infection.
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