Nursing Elites

1. A client with a BMI of 60.2 kg/m² is admitted to the intensive care unit 3 weeks after gastric bypass with gastric rupture and impending multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS). What should the nurse prepare to implement first?

• A. Mechanical ventilation
• B. Platelet transfusion
• C. Loop diuretic therapy
• D. Cyanocobalamin administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this critical situation with gastric rupture and impending MODS, the priority intervention should be mechanical ventilation. This client is at risk of respiratory compromise due to the severity of the condition. Platelet transfusion (Choice B) is not the priority as there is no indication of significant bleeding. Loop diuretic therapy (Choice C) and cyanocobalamin administration (Choice D) are not the immediate priorities in this scenario and would not address the urgent need for respiratory support.

2. A client who is newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) receives a prescription for metformin (Glucophage) 500 mg PO twice daily. What information should the nurse include in this client’s teaching plan? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Take an additional dose for signs of hyperglycemia
• B. Recognize signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia.
• C. Report persistent polyuria to the healthcare provider.
• D. Use sliding scale insulin for finger stick glucose elevation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Metformin does not require additional doses for hyperglycemia, and sliding scale insulin is not typically used with metformin. It is important for the client to recognize signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia, report persistent polyuria to the healthcare provider, and take the medication with meals. Teaching the client to use sliding scale insulin for finger stick glucose elevation is not appropriate in this case because metformin is the prescribed medication, and its mechanism of action differs from insulin therapy. The client should be educated on the importance of taking metformin with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects and to report any persistent polyuria, which could indicate poor blood sugar control.

3. The practical nurse (PN) is assigned to work with three registered nurses (RN) who are caring for neurologically compromised clients. The client with which change in status is best to assign to the PN?

• A. Diabetic ketoacidosis whose Glasgow Coma Scale score changed from 10 to 7
• B. Subdural hematoma whose blood pressure changed from 150/80 mmHg to 170/60 mmHg
• C. Myxedema coma whose blood pressure changed from 80/50 mmHg to 70/40 mmHg
• D. Viral meningitis whose temperature changed from 101° F (38.3 C) to 102° F (38.9C)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because viral meningitis with a slight increase in temperature is less acute and complex compared to the other conditions. This change in temperature does not indicate a critical or urgent situation requiring immediate attention or intervention beyond the scope of a practical nurse. Choices A, B, and C present more significant changes in health status such as a decrease in Glasgow Coma Scale score, an increase in intracranial pressure indicated by blood pressure changes, and a significant drop in blood pressure, respectively. These changes require closer monitoring and intervention by registered nurses due to the higher acuity and complexity of care needed for these conditions.

4. When preparing to discharge a male client who has been hospitalized for an adrenal crisis, the client expresses concern about having another crisis. He tells the nurse that he wants to stay in the hospital a few more days. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions
• B. Schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment
• C. Obtain a blood cortisol level before discharge
• D. Encourage the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention is to schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment. This option addresses the client's concerns and provides support for managing stress and preventing future crises, which is crucial for the client's long-term care. Administering antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions (Choice A) may not effectively address the underlying concerns. Obtaining a blood cortisol level before discharge (Choice C) is important but not the priority in this situation. Encouraging the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days (Choice D) is not the best course of action as it may not address the client's anxiety and could potentially lead to other issues.

5. When the client asks the nurse if they have ever been with someone when they died, what is the nurse’s best response?

• A. “Yes, I have. Do you have some questions about dying?”
• B. “Several times. Now, let’s get your dressing changed.”
• C. “A few times. It was peaceful and there was no pain.”
• D. “Yes, but you’re doing great. Are you concerned about dying?”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the best response as it acknowledges the client's question and opens the door for further discussion about dying if the client wishes to. It shows empathy and encourages the client to express any concerns they may have. Choices B and C do not directly address the client's question or offer an opportunity for him to explore his concerns. Choice D acknowledges the experience but fails to address the client's question directly and does not encourage further discussion.

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