HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank
1. During an admission history, a client tells a nurse that she is under a lot of stress. Which of the following physiological responses should the nurse expect to increase as a result of stress?
- A. Blood glucose - a common stress response.
- B. Intestinal peristalsis - should decrease due to stress.
- C. Peripheral blood vessels diameter - can vary in response to stress.
- D. Urine output - may vary but not a typical stress response.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Stress typically increases blood glucose levels due to the release of stress hormones like cortisol and adrenaline. Elevated blood glucose helps provide energy for the body to cope with the stressful situation. Choice B is incorrect because intestinal peristalsis, the movement of the intestines, is more likely to decrease under stress due to the 'fight or flight' response. Choice C is incorrect as peripheral blood vessels' diameter may vary in response to stress, with both constriction and dilation possible. Choice D is incorrect as urine output may increase or decrease depending on individual differences and the specific stress response, but it is not a typical or direct physiological response to stress.
2. A client requires an NG tube for stomach decompression. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when inserting the NG tube?
- A. Help the client take sips of water to promote insertion of the NG tube.
- B. Insert the tube without asking the client to swallow.
- C. Advance the tube continuously without pausing.
- D. Use a large-bore tube for insertion.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action when inserting an NG tube is to help the client take sips of water. This helps facilitate the insertion of the tube by promoting swallowing and passage through the esophagus. Asking the client to swallow assists in guiding the tube into the stomach. Inserting the tube without asking the client to swallow may lead to incorrect placement or discomfort. Advancing the tube continuously without pausing can cause the tube to coil in the esophagus, leading to complications. Using a large-bore tube for insertion is unnecessary and may increase the risk of injury or discomfort for the client.
3. The nurse is caring for a client who is post-operative following a cholecystectomy. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?
- A. Absent bowel sounds
- B. Pain level of 8/10
- C. Temperature of 100.4°F
- D. Saturated abdominal dressing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing may indicate active bleeding or other complications that require immediate intervention, such as ensuring hemostasis and preventing further complications. Absent bowel sounds are common in the immediate post-operative period and may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other symptoms. A pain level of 8/10 can be managed with appropriate pain medication and is not typically considered an immediate priority unless other indications suggest complications. A temperature of 100.4°F is slightly elevated but may not be a cause for immediate concern unless it is associated with other signs of infection or distress that would warrant urgent attention.
4. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?
- A. INR of 1.5
- B. Platelet count of 200,000/mm³
- C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
- D. aPTT of 70 seconds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for clients on anticoagulation therapy, increasing the risk of clot formation. A lower INR indicates inadequate anticoagulation, which can lead to thrombus formation and potential complications such as progression or recurrence of deep vein thrombosis. Platelet count, hemoglobin level, and aPTT are important parameters to monitor in a client with DVT. However, in this scenario, the most concerning value is the suboptimal INR level because it signifies a lack of anticoagulation effectiveness and poses a higher risk of clotting issues.
5. When performing cardiac chest compressions, what is a critical concept that the nurse must understand?
- A. Push hard and deep on the chest
- B. Compress the chest at a rapid rate
- C. Perform compressions with minimal interruptions
- D. Use a two-handed technique for compressions
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Push hard and deep on the chest.' Effective chest compressions during CPR should be forceful and deep enough to adequately circulate blood to vital organs. This helps maintain perfusion and increases the likelihood of a successful outcome. Compressing the chest at a rapid rate (choice B) is important but not as critical as ensuring the compressions are hard and deep. Performing compressions with minimal interruptions (choice C) is also crucial to maintain blood flow. Using a two-handed technique for compressions (choice D) may be helpful but is not as critical as the depth and force of the compressions.
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