HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A young adult client is receiving instruction from a healthcare provider about health promotion and illness prevention. Which of the following statements indicates understanding?
- A. “I had my immunizations as a child, so I’m protected in that area.”
- B. “It is important to schedule routine health care visits even if I am feeling well.”
- C. “I will go to an urgent care center for my routine medical care.”
- D. “There’s no reason to seek help if I am feeling stressed as it’s just part of life.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Scheduling routine health care visits, even when feeling well, is crucial for early detection and prevention of health issues. This proactive approach allows healthcare providers to monitor overall health, provide preventive care, and address any emerging health concerns promptly. Choice A is incorrect because past immunizations do not cover all potential diseases; regular check-ups are still necessary. Choice C is incorrect as urgent care centers are not designed for routine medical care. Choice D is incorrect as seeking help for stress is important for mental well-being and should not be dismissed as a normal part of life.
2. During an admission assessment for an older adult client, what is the priority action for the nurse after gathering data and reviewing systems?
- A. Orient the client to their room.
- B. Conduct a client care conference.
- C. Review medical prescriptions.
- D. Develop a plan of care.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority action for the nurse after completing the assessment and review of systems for an older adult client is to orient them to their room. This is crucial for ensuring the client's comfort and safety in the new environment. While reviewing medical prescriptions and developing a plan of care are important aspects of the admission process, they can be done after the client has been oriented to their room.
3. A healthcare professional is planning care for a female client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional include in the plan?
- A. Empty the drainage bag at least every 8 hours
- B. Keep the drainage bag below the level of the bladder
- C. Use sterile technique to collect a specimen from the drainage system
- D. Secure the catheter to the lower abdomen with a securement device
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action to include in the plan is to keep the drainage bag below the level of the bladder. This positioning helps ensure proper drainage and prevents backflow of urine into the bladder, reducing the risk of urinary tract infections. Emptying the drainage bag regularly is important, typically every 4-8 hours or when it is half-full, to maintain adequate flow and prevent infection (Choice A is incorrect). Using a sterile technique to collect specimens from the drainage system is crucial to prevent introducing pathogens into the urinary tract, so clean technique should not be used (Choice C is incorrect). Taping the catheter to the lower abdomen is not recommended as it can cause tension on the catheter, leading to discomfort and potential trauma to the urethra (Choice D is incorrect).
4. The nurse is providing care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely to assess for complications?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Blood glucose
- C. Serum sodium
- D. Serum calcium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Blood glucose. When caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels is essential due to the increased risk of hyperglycemia associated with TPN infusion. Elevated blood glucose levels can lead to complications such as hyperglycemia, which can be harmful to the client. While monitoring serum potassium (Choice A), serum sodium (Choice C), and serum calcium (Choice D) are also important aspects of care, when specifically considering TPN administration, blood glucose monitoring takes precedence due to the potential for significant complications related to glucose imbalances.
5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a chest tube in place following a pneumothorax. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Bubbling in the water seal chamber
- B. Drainage greater than 70 ml/hour
- C. Tidaling in the water seal chamber
- D. Absence of breath sounds on the affected side
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The absence of breath sounds on the affected side is a critical finding that may indicate a tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening condition requiring immediate intervention. This situation can lead to a shift of the mediastinum and impaired ventilation. Bubbling in the water seal chamber is an expected finding in a chest tube drainage system and indicates proper functioning. Drainage greater than 70 ml/hour is a concern but does not require immediate reporting unless it continues at a high rate or is associated with other symptoms. Tidaling in the water seal chamber is a normal fluctuation and indicates the chest tube system is patent and functioning correctly.
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