Nursing Elites

1. During a community health fair, a nurse is providing education on the effects of smoking. What is the most important information to include?

• A. Smoking can lead to cosmetic issues like tooth staining.
• B. Smoking is a leading cause of preventable death worldwide.
• C. Smoking temporarily elevates mood and alertness.
• D. Smoking is an expensive habit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Smoking is a leading cause of preventable death worldwide.' This information is crucial as it highlights the severe health risks associated with smoking, emphasizing the importance of cessation for overall health. Choice A is incorrect because cosmetic issues like tooth staining are not as significant as the life-threatening consequences of smoking. Choice C is incorrect because although smoking may temporarily elevate mood and alertness due to nicotine, this does not outweigh the serious health implications. Choice D is incorrect as while smoking is indeed an expensive habit, the focus should be on the health-related consequences to stress the urgency of quitting.

2. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Which dietary recommendation is most appropriate?

• A. Increase fiber intake.
• B. Avoid spicy foods.
• C. Avoid dairy products.
• D. Consume a high-fat diet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate dietary recommendation for a client with peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is to avoid spicy foods. Spicy foods can irritate the stomach lining and exacerbate symptoms of PUD. Increasing fiber intake may be beneficial for other gastrointestinal conditions but is not the primary concern for PUD. Avoiding dairy products is not a general recommendation for PUD unless the individual has a specific intolerance. Consuming a high-fat diet can increase the risk of exacerbating PUD symptoms due to the delayed gastric emptying associated with high-fat meals.

3. The nurse is planning to ambulate a client who has been on bed rest for 24 hours following a Colon Resection. To ambulate this client safely, which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Place non-skid shoes on the client
• B. Show the client how to use the call light
• C. Use a gait belt to support the client
• D. Assist the client to a bedside sitting position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To ambulate a client safely after a period of bed rest, the nurse should first assist the client to a bedside sitting position. This initial step ensures the client is stable before attempting to stand and walk, reducing the risk of falls and allowing for a gradual adjustment to activity post-bed rest. Placing non-skid shoes, showing how to use the call light, or using a gait belt are important but should come after ensuring the client is safely seated and stable.

4. Before a client undergoes a Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) scan with contrast, what should the nurse assess?

• A. If the client has any metal implants
• B. If the client has allergies to iodine or shellfish
• C. If the client has a history of claustrophobia
• D. If the client has ever had a similar procedure before

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before an MRI scan with contrast, the nurse should assess if the client has any metal implants. Metal implants can interfere with the magnetic field of the MRI, which can pose a risk to the client's safety and compromise the quality of the scan. Assessing for allergies to iodine or shellfish (Choice B) is important for contrast agents but not specific to metal implants. Claustrophobia assessment (Choice C) is relevant for MRI scans due to the confined space but not specific to metal implants. Past procedures (Choice D) are important for comparison but not directly related to the risks associated with metal implants during an MRI scan with contrast.

5. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Thiazide diuretics commonly cause potassium loss, which can lead to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is essential when a client is taking thiazide diuretics to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is an elevated level of potassium, which is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypernatremia (choice B) is an elevated level of sodium, and hypoglycemia (choice D) is low blood sugar, neither of which are directly linked to thiazide diuretic use.

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